You are taking me out of context. Show me the postNot true. You have introduced arguments from the 1948 war, from 1945 and from the pre-Mandate period. But, still, I appreciate your clarity. Any further presentation, by you, of arguments from times other than 1967 can be dismissed as being inconsistent with your own claim.
However, given that Israel HAD sovereign title, in law, to the territory in its entirety; and given that the conflict between 1948 and 1967 and right up to 1988 when Palestine declared independence, was between Israel and the States of Jordan and Egypt and has since been resolved; and given that there is no possible legal claim for an existing international boundary (other than Oslo) your claim is without merit.