Your argument is "I don't have an argument".... but somehow you have a vote.
No. My argument is that SCOTUS directly contradicts you assertion. And provided the affirmation.
Do you have an argument why SCOTUS is wrong ?
OKAY FINE. NOW GO ******* PROVE YOU ARGUMENT. ******* hell, it's not that difficult is it?
Yes, I have an argument of why it's wrong, but you said I was wrong, and you haven't proven shit yet, so I'm waiting for your argument BEFORE anything else, seeing how that is the logical progression.
So what more proof do you need than SCOTUS ruling?
My argument is you are wrong when you say the 2A doesn’t provide for self defense and here is the SCOTUS ruling and language which supports it.
Well, I'll take it as you don't actually have much of an argument then. So.... I win.
Thanks
Bye.
Not according to the SCOTUS. Sorry you’re beat by facts not conjecture. Nothing better than making a liberal eat its words.
Nothing better than people thinking they've won an argument they never actually made.
DISTRICT OF COLUMBIA v. HELLER
In sum, we hold that the District’s ban on handgun possession in the home violates the Second Amendment , as does its prohibition against rendering any lawful firearm in the home operable for the purpose of immediate self-defense,
As the quotations earlier in this opinion demonstrate, the inherent right of self-defense has been central to the Second Amendment right. The handgun ban amounts to a prohibition of an entire class of “arms” that is overwhelmingly chosen by American society for that lawful purpose. The prohibition extends, moreover, to the home, where the need for defense of self, family, and property is most acute. Under any of the standards of scrutiny that we have applied to enumerated constitutional rights,27 banning from the home “the most preferred firearm in the nation to ‘keep’ and use for protection of one’s home and family,” 478 F. 3d, at 400, would fail constitutional muster.
-Heller vs Dc
What you posted before.
A ban on gun ownership is against the right to keep arms.
"
as does its prohibition against rendering any lawful firearm in the home operable for the purpose of immediate self-defense,"
So, the Supreme Court is saying you can ONLY defend yourself with a firearm? Nothing else can ever be used for self defense?
Also, you might notice that they didn't connect this sentence with the Second Amendment. They merely said it violated the right to self defense.
"
As the quotations earlier in this opinion demonstrate, the inherent right of self-defense has been central to the Second Amendment right."
So, what quotations?
"We turn to the phrases “keep arms” and “bear arms.” Johnson defined “keep” as, most relevantly, “[t]o retain; not to lose,” and “[t]o have in custody.” Johnson 1095. Webster defined it as “[t]o hold; to retain in one’s power or possession.” No party has apprised us of an idiomatic meaning of “keep Arms.” Thus, the most natural reading of “keep Arms” in the Second Amendment is to “have weapons.”"
Here's what they wrote. This is bullshit and they know it. So, the DC side of the case, making a bad case, didn't show the evidence that is pretty clear that the term "bear arms" means "render military service" and "militia duty" as stated in the HOUSE during debates on the 2A.
See here
Amendment II: House of Representatives, Amendments to the Constitution
So, they basically said "no one's shown us anything, so we're going to ignore what we actually should know."
"At the time of the founding, as now, to “bear” meant to “carry.”"
That the Supreme Court would come up with this bullshit argument is telling.
So, stool can mean wooden three or four legged seating device usually with no back. It can also mean "a shit".
So, if the doctor says "please, sit on the stool", we have to make it mean "sit on a shit" because it CAN MEAN "a shit". ******* hell, all that legal training and they can't understand a word or phrase can have more than one meaning.
"bear" can also mean to give birth. Do we assume that the 2A MUST MEAN the right to GIVE BIRTH TO ARMS because it can mean this?
"In numerous instances, “bear arms” was unambiguously used to refer to the carrying of weapons outside of an organized militia. "
Ah, they find one example of "bear arms" being used in a manner, so now they've decided ALL MEANINGS must mean this, even though there's DEFINITIVE EVIDENCE it means "render military service" and "militia duty". Not only this THE WHOLE DAMN ******* AMENDMENT is about "A well regulated militia".
"Nine state constitutional provisions written in the 18th century or the first two decades of the 19th, which enshrined a right of citizens to “bear arms in defense of themselves and the state” or “bear arms in defense of himself and the state.”"
And here it gets even worse. You have state clauses which clearly state that there is "defense of themselves" or "defense of himself" and yet the Second Amendment DOES NOT INCLUDE THIS in their clause. Right.
"It is clear from those formulations that “bear arms” did not refer only to carrying a weapon in an organized military unit."
Which is true. However it's not true that the Second Amendment says anything other than "render military service" and "militia duty".
So, basically the Supreme Court used some evidence, twisted it and were allowed to do so because the DC side of the case were trying for a different angle and were inept, beyond belief and were also being too political with it.
There's NOTHING to suggest the 2A provides a right to self defense at all. What they've got is other things which point to things which COULD, if you're really trying hard and you're twisting shit, be used in the SUpreme Court with biased justices, be used to get what the **** you want.