Hmm... See I get the feeling this is clearly a joke, but I guess I'll respond normally...
Well, it's funny, for sure. But what makes it really funny is because it's rational as well. I didn't set out to be funny, I just followed the process.
I just decided I wanted to see if there is a correlation between the two. And what would you do first? What would any statistician or econometrician do? A scatter plot.
And Excel makes is so darned easy to shift the lag. It sure beats writing a SAS program. We can get so involved in the technicalities, we don't realize how important the simple things really are.
It is so easy, a secretary can do it. Every person working at a desk and every kid in high school can do it. At this point in history, you'd think than every one would. It is, after all, the simplest of statistics to do.
And lo and behold, it gives a R^2 of more than zero. It gives a beta greater than zero. Yes, the slope is really slight, so it does make the regression a bit questionable. It might actually be zero. I haven't decide what the next best test is. I would like to pick the one that has the most bang.
If it was completely random, you'd just dump the idea and go on to something else. It's questionably random. The error terms are just stocked full of stuff, aren't they?
But there is some "intuitive" validity in it. After all, Keynes did say, bury government notes in a mine and then auction off the rights to
private companies to dig them up. That is just as much paying companies to hire people with negative corporate tax as it is in direct stimulus checks. Keynes didn't say "pay people to dig holes." Auctioning off the rights to private companies us just as supply side and it is demand side. It's not any side. It's all sides. It is fiscal-monetary-supply-and-demand-side all at once. Auctioning off rights to the air waves is fiscal policy, isn't it? It's not specifically taxes. It's not strictly regulatory. What is cap-and-trade? Well it sure isn't monetary policy. Still, printing and burying money is monetary policy, better not bury too much. Whatever it is, clearly, he was being facetious to make a point.
When you step way back and look at things, the gov't is just another not-for-profit company with a particular pricing strategy. The rest of the world, the exports and import markets, is just another huge company. And then you have the national private economy.
In truth, the whole Ireland thing works, in the race to the bottom, in the same way Japan did by floating Sony for a decade as long as they showed an increase in market share. That isn't a vindication of supply side economics, it's a "countries as a global business" thing. The world economy is just a bunch of huge businesses called "nations". OPEC knows that. None of it will save any economy from a global recession.
The economy, and economics, is just about redistributing scarce resources, be them natural resources or the money we use to account for them. The resources are in one place, and the economy redistributes it. Money is in one place, and the economy redistributes it.
It makes no difference, from Keynes perspective, if the government stimulates it by creating some new public company, pays private companies, or provided unemployment checks. The only question is which is more efficient and at what point in the business cycle and how.
Keynes wasn't even "Keynsian" the way it is used in today's public discussion. Neither was Laffer. Each was an economist in general and for the policy that worked for the economics of the time.
So first off, the specification hasn't been justified. For an OLS estimator to be unbiased, we need a very special assumption: the error term is uncorrelated with the regressors. So basically, if there's something which impacts the employment-population ratio which may be correlated with changes in the top marginal tax rate, then the model is misspecified and OLS doesn't work. So is there anything like that left out?
Absolutely all of it, these would be important refinements. We can spend all day coming with reasons why it isn't right. That isn't the point. The point is to come up with what will make it right.
And, for our purposes, we are actually better off if there is some correlation. It's all about framing. The real shame of it is that assisting private companies can be important. Circus Ole, or whatever they are called, was floated by the Canadian government for years. They they took off and became a world wide phenomena.
How about changes in all the other tax rates? Does supply side theory tell us that only changes in the top marginal tax rate affects economic activity? If other tax cuts affect employment (eg, payroll tax cuts), and they're correlated with the regressor (maybe because tax cuts are all given out at once rather than exogenously and individually), then they need to be included.
The problem is that the further away we get from the simplistics of physics, (like how much gun powder will launch a cannon ball through the wall of a castle a half mile away without blowing up the cannon,) the harder it gets. But, as Einstein said, the trick is to make it as simple as possible, without making it too simple.
If the top marginal rate alone won't produce enough, then what will?
So the question is really about what rates to change. I have only found the top marginal rates. I don't know why only the top marginal rate is readily available. I haven't looked more since I found what I found.
In 2000, there were 7 million businesses with an average of 16.7 employees. B of A employs a quarter of a million. Most businesses are sole professorships ( I think). That minimum alternative tax just screwed a whole bunch of people when it changed. And if it changed in 2003, that may explain a few things. The top marginal rate is a bit meaningless compared to the lower rates. It is really the rates for the millions of medium and small businesses, obviously. If anything, it is obviously that.
Small companies are far more likely to have more use for a rate change. They pay a new hire two weeks after they start, after they have built and sold the product. But, they have to pay for materials ahead of time. The difference that a change in the marginal rate would make for them could mean the difference between being able to purchase materials so that the new hire has something to build.
Doesn't it make more sense to determine what the exact effect is for all the rates and change those that are best? Do we really need the CBO to figure it out for us?
Surely, the top marginal rate effect can't be better then my little regression? And if it could be, if it was at best .05, how would it frame the idea of changing the top marginal rate for the majority of moderates? If is was, under better analysis, 1%/0.05 = a 20% rate change of the top marginal rate, for 35% - 100% = -65%, would the argument be less funny? Would it frame it differently?
And, if the best it could be is a beta of .01 for the top rate while the middle rate give us a beta of 1, isn't it a better argument to say, "Yes, supply side will give us a .5% increase in employment for a 50% cut in the top rate but if we cut the middle rate, we get a one to one change"?
And, what about spending on the other side? It's hard to say what Reagan did. Was it the massive expansion of the military, the tax cuts, or the doubling in deficit spending? It is really hard to ferret them out.
What about GDP growth? If top marginal rate cuts are given out when the economy is booming, since the deficit shrinks and the government wants to be reelected, or in slumps to "stimulate" the economy, then it's correlated and needs to be included.
And, what about temporary blips. My initial impression is that a tax rebate and a tax cut is just a temporary bump. Maybe it's not. Maybe it's a spike that bumps up high, then settle into something that is lower than the spike, but higher then it was. Maybe it depends on when. When output it a full trying to stimulate the economy, in any way, just causes an increase in prices. At that point, tax cuts won't get more out of it. On the other hand, when the economy just sucks, tax cuts on income, direct stimulus, and small corporations will bump it. They all will do something.
Then you can check your specification by running a Ramsey RESET test or other diagnostic.
You had me at "Ols estimator" you smooth talker you....
But seriously, there is a level of statistics and analysis that is appropriate for doing drug studies. It's like calculus. If your going to send someone to the moon, then you better use calculus. But if all your trying to do is figure out the volume of a box for your stereo speakers, maybe you should build a simpler box. There is a level of statistics that is appropriate for the situation. If we run the same basic statistics on ten different things, they all suffer from the same faults of analysis. And, if anyone stands out, it is likely because it is better. And when there is a strong effect, even crappy statistics will show it.
The question is, can we show a better effect from a cut to the top marginal rate, at what point in the cycle, and to what maximum extent? Was the 2001 cuts just the right amount but the 2003 was too much? You remember Goldilocks and the Three Bears? I thought that was the point, one tax cut is too soft, one tax cut is too hard, and one tax cut is just right.
When I decided to do the scatter plot, I surely didn't expect a correlation of any sort. But, there it is. It may be very very weak. It may be "caused" by something else. Maybe it's even just random chance. But what I generally find when I go after something is failure to find anything, not something.
And if you think about it, however funny it may be that a -200% rate will lower employment by 5% (sure it will, it misses some conflagrating effects). A tax corporate tax change, (a fiscal, not monetary thing) at the right point in the business cycle, at the right marginal rates, will do something.
And as hypothesis testing goes, if I want to prove that something isn't, I have to exhaust all possibilities, to a 95%-99% level of confidence in trying to prove it is. That is the foundation of it. That is how drug testing work. We prove that it won't kill anyone by seeing if it will kill rats first, then we try it on pigs. Then a human trial is done. After that, the entire medical community gets involved. If, god forbid, someone does die or get sick, the lawyers get involved. If it get's past the lawyer stage, then it is proven to a 99.9999% level of confidence.
My point is, if it has to be perfect from the start, we get nowhere. This isn't drug testing. However we get there, if we follow the process, it is what it is. The argument takes care of itself.
So personally, my position follows from the economics, not the other way around. Right now, I'm stuck at what I've got. And what I've got is an R^2 of 2% and a coefficient of -.02. Like I use to tell my stats instructor, "If I didn't have my anecdotes, I wouldn't have anything at all."
Thank you for your list of what the next choices are in doing the analysis. It makes it a heck of a lot easier then having to dig through my closet to find my texts. And god knows, Wikipedia just sucks unless you already remember what your looking for.