P F Tinmore,
et al,
Yes, I believe this is all about control.
Since 1949, the West Bank was Jordanian occupied Palestinian land and the Gaza Strip was Egyptian occupied Palestinian land. Israel could not win Palestinian land from Jordan and Egypt. It was not their land to lose.
Take one step back. Israel claims that it won Palestinian land from Lebanon, Syria, Jordan/Iraq, and Egypt. in the 1948 war. There again, it was not their land to lose. There are other problems with this premise. It is illegal to acquire land in war. The "Arab countries" did not lose that war. The 1948 war ended when the UN Security Council called for an armistice.
Oslo was merely an agreement on the management of the occupation and is irrelevant to land ownership.
(COMMENT)
I actually do not dispute this. I acknowledge as much in Post #105, where I stipulated that the territories were under the control of various Arab nations. I do not disagree that the 1949 Armistice Agreement was in force at the time the 1967 War began. What I do question is that since the re-initiation of hostilities in 1967, the 1949 Armistice Agreements became null and void.
In "lionboy's" most recent post, he postulates an interesting theory.
The answers are as follows:
Israel didn't live up to their part of the Oslo Accords, which made the "Accords" un-enforceable.
The question regarding arab rights to that land is still being decided; However, Israeli rights to that land, has been decided and it came down as a big fat NO. Israel has no right to that land.
You cannot hold onto land seized in a war.
There is little question that the Arab World attempted ---
not once, but several times --- to use these lands as a gateway to corrupt the sovereign integrity of Israel
(hostile intent). It really makes little difference which Arab nation or subgroup controlled, or held title to, what territory prior to the outbreak of hostilities. It is historically clear that the entire region conspired to overthrow the sovereignty of Israel
(as recognized by the UN Membership in May 1949).
There is no question that, whichever entity had sovereign control over the lands collectively known as the "Occupied Territories" (so designated by the UNSC and the ICJ under international law) the stewardship was less than honorable. The UNSC and the ICJ both recognize that by designating the land as "Occupied" that in fact inclusively they acknowledged as it being seized as a result of "war." This essentially nullified the 1949 Armistice Agreement.
There is a theory in play
(supporting that "P F Tinmore's" position) that but no . had internationally recognized sovereignty over the West Bank, Gaza Strip and East Jerusalem, prior to the outbreak of hostilities. Thus, no Arab state, nation or entity can truly claim territorial injury or violation of sovereignty relative to the West Bank, Gaza Strip and East Jerusalem.
The question becomes, where do we go from here; as the situation exists today?
I'm not even sure that the subject can be discussed rationally. It seems that both sides are dug-in deeply, unable to compromise, and locked in on an emotionally charged counterproductive path. Each side is caught in an endless loop of recriminations and unable to reach a consensus. Reduced to childlike verbal assaults that escalate into deadly confrontations.
Most Respectfully,
R