montelatici
Gold Member
- Feb 5, 2014
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P F Tinmore
Okay, so stop. First you said that the Oslo Accords violated "the law of treaties" and "the rules of occupation".
Then you said that the Oslo Accords violated universal human rights.
Then you said that the Oslo Accords violated the rights to self-determination, independence, sovereignty and territorial integrity.
And NOW you are trying to argue that treaties are invalid when they make peace agreements for such things as borders, citizenship, security, relations with neighbors and other issues of common interest.
Pick a goal post, dude. And plant it. And keep it where you planted it.
I believe that the Geneva Conventions state that while under occupation, any agreements made by the occupied people and their leadership, with the occupier are not valid. Petain's agreements with the Nazis, for example, were not considered valid. A belligerent occupation must end before agreements between the former occupier and the occupied have validity. This is logical in that an occupied people may subject to agreeing to conditions that go against their interests and in favor of the occupier.
I would like to see a link to that clause.
"Similarly, the inhabitants of the occupied territory cannot renounce their rights under the Fourth Geneva Convention. This again is a safeguard. It prevents the occupying power from exploiting the vulnerability of the occupied territory by exerting undue pressure to undermine and weaken the protection which the law affords. "
https://www.icrc.org/eng/assets/files/other/law9_final.pdf