Oh, come on. You know I care about humanity. You've said so yourself. Totally guilty on the arrogant, though. I know a LOT more about the topic, especially the legal issues, than most people.
So, work with me here instead of throwing around insults. My assertion is that Israel has a sovereign claim to the territories in question. That sovereign claim arises from the 1948 Declaration of Independence based on the borders of the administrative units which preceded the independence. This is exactly the same as the claims of Jordan, Syria, Iraq, and Lebanon to their territories. The procedure was the same, as it must be unless you discriminate against Israel (Jews).
If you disagree with this assertion - make an argument against it. Prove that Israel had DIFFERENT borders in 1948 and show me the documentation to prove it.