Sorry to jump into this conversation, but this is what happens when people try to change the definition of marriage.
If a definition can be changed, then it is ultimately meaningless. In other words, if something is not objectively true, then it's subjective, and no particular definition can be more right than any other. That makes it completely meaningless.
You are absolutely right that homosexuals are discriminating against other nontraditional ideas of marriage. For example, I'm sure that pedophiles want the "right" to marry as well. Of course any sane person would oppose that for obvious reasons, but if the definition of marriage is changeable and subjective, then on what basis does anyone have to deny the "right" of pedophiles to marry?
Homosexuals discriminate too... they just don't realize it.
Holly ******* shit are you serious ??! Pedophiles ? You are totally off the rails with that one!! Marriage has been redefined many times over the years but never to include children . To suggest that it might is irresponsible and dangerous .You should be ashamed. And how are gays discriminating against anyone else? Please explain. That is over the top idiotic!
Sigh… you're not getting the point. Let me try again. There are different types of truths. Some things are objectively true, and other truths are subjective (in other words, based on opinion, and changeable.)
A timeless or objective truth does not change. Even if you change a law, that doesn't mean the actual truth has changed… Because as we established earlier, man-made laws do not constitute actual truth.
When it comes to marriage, you guys claim that the definition can be changed. Again, if it
truly can be changed, then it is not an objective truth, it is merely a matter of opinion… and no particular opinion can be more true or right than any other.
What does this have to do with pedophilia? First of all, you misunderstood and you seemed to think that I was saying same-sex marriage will lead to pedophile marriage. That wasn't my point. My point was that if marriage doesn't have an objectively true definition… if it instead is changeable, subjective…
then on what basis are you denying pedophiles the “right” to marry? Your definition of marriage can't be more right than anyone else's, if it is subjective, changeable.
Do you get it now?