Rigby5
Diamond Member
When Britain took over that area in 1917 they called it "Mandatory Palestine". Up until that time it had not been called "Palestine" for centuries. And in 1917 the Arab population did not call themselves "Palestinians."
". . .In the second half of the 19th century, the longstanding yearning of Jews in the Diaspora to return to the territory of their ancestors culminated in the nationalistic movement called Zionism.
The Zionist cause was driven by steeply rising hatred toward Jews in Europe and Russia. Immigrating Jews encountered a predominantly Arab populace, who also considered it their ancestral homeland.
At that time, the land comprised three administrative regions of the Ottoman empire, none of which was called “Palestine.”
In 1917, the land came under British rule. In 1923, “Mandatory Palestine,” which also included the current state of Jordan, was created. Its Arab inhabitants saw themselves primarily not as “Palestinians” in the sense of a nation, but instead as Arabs living in Palestine (or rather, “Greater Syria”). . ."
The history of ‘Israel’ and ‘Palestine’: Alternative names, competing claims
This history of Israel and Palestine is complicated. One land, two names. Those on each side claim the land as theirs, under their chosen name.theconversation.com
No, the British never had any rule over Palestine.
It was ruled by the Ottoman Empire until the British and Palestinians together defeated them.
The British then owed the Palestinians for their help, and accepted the responsibility of preparing the Palestinians for independence. That is what a "mandate" is, and is a mandatory obligation, like a debt.
But the main point is that 95% of the people in Palestine were NOT Jewish and they owned 100% of the land.
Obviously now things are totally screwed up since 7 million descendants of recent immigrants took over 85% of the land and illegally displaced the 13 million legal owners of the land, forcing them onto concentration camps that are only 15% of their actual legal properties.
