Do Palestinians Have the Right to Defend Themselves?

[Phoenall]

Acquiring land is a real estate issue. Practising sovereignty is a separate issue. That is how the land became Israel's. They declared sovereignty over the land, and were able to protect it.
I have never heard of, and you have never provided any evidence that one must ACQUIRE territory through a treaty or agreement.

Actually, they were Europeans that went to Palestine and took the land by force. Illegal under international law. That's just a fact.

False, Israel declared independence over land allotted to her in the partition plan. the SAME way the Palestinians did.

IF what Israel did was illegal, the U.N would not have recognized her.

"This Palestinian Declaration of Independence explicitly accepted the UN General Assembly’s Partition Resolution 181(II) of 1947, which called for the creation of a Jewish state and an Arab state in the former Mandate for Palestine, together with an international trusteeship for the City of Jerusalem. The significance of the PNC’s acceptance of partition in the Palestinian Declaration of Independence itself cannot be overemphasized."

Europeans conquered land in Palestine through force. That is a fact. And, conquering land through force is illegal. What part of that do you not understand.

The Pope gave the Americas to Portugal and Spain. The English Crown chartered colonies in North America. It does not make it legal or right.

When five Arab states attacked Israel, Israel was on the defensive. The land they captured during that war is now part of Israel. It's inside the green line and globally recognized. Israel is also a member of the U.N. Also, the Palestinians recognize that land as being Israel's.The land that Israel declared independence on however was not conquered through force. The Jews practised sovereignty over the land, the SAME WAY THE PALESTINIANS DID OVER THEIR LAND, as I have proved. Declaring independence over land is NOT conquering it. Why can't you understand that ?

So because 5 neighboring countries attacked Israel (???) and lost (???) Israel won land from Palestine?

Do you have a link to that legal theory?

They won no land from the nation of Palestine because it does not yet exist, so the land outside of that allocated to Israel was free for the taking. Because the arab league invaded they altered the status of the land allowing Israel to lay claim to what they captured in 1949. This was inline with common practise at the time and did not constitute acquiring land by force. In 1967 it was a different set of rules in force and the land occupied belonged to Egypt and Jordan. So that land was not claimed as Israeli.

Do you understand this ?

 

[P F Tinmore]

A state needs a defined territory.

Where did Israel get a defined territory?

MY God you are stupid. International law dictates that Sovereign states have defined territory. Israel is a sovereign state. Therefore Israel has defined territory.

Now stop ducking my question. Where did you read that a country needs to ACQUIRE territory in order to declare independence ?

Well if it does not have any it needs to get it from someplace. Usually it is an agreement or treaty with those who have the territory you want.

That is what I have been looking for.

Acquiring land is a real estate issue. Practising sovereignty is a separate issue. That is how the land became Israel's. They declared sovereignty over the land, and were able to protect it.
I have never heard of, and you have never provided any evidence that one must ACQUIRE territory through a treaty or agreement.

I guess that whenever you create a state you need someplace to put it goes over your head.

And that was taken are of in 1923 when the Mandate for Palestine was written. Why do you have so much trouble understanding that the same laws that apply to Syria and Jordan also apply to Israel

Because they don't.

 

[P F Tinmore]

Actually, they were Europeans that went to Palestine and took the land by force. Illegal under international law. That's just a fact.

False, Israel declared independence over land allotted to her in the partition plan. the SAME way the Palestinians did.

IF what Israel did was illegal, the U.N would not have recognized her.

"This Palestinian Declaration of Independence explicitly accepted the UN General Assembly’s Partition Resolution 181(II) of 1947, which called for the creation of a Jewish state and an Arab state in the former Mandate for Palestine, together with an international trusteeship for the City of Jerusalem. The significance of the PNC’s acceptance of partition in the Palestinian Declaration of Independence itself cannot be overemphasized."

Europeans conquered land in Palestine through force. That is a fact. And, conquering land through force is illegal. What part of that do you not understand.

The Pope gave the Americas to Portugal and Spain. The English Crown chartered colonies in North America. It does not make it legal or right.

When five Arab states attacked Israel, Israel was on the defensive. The land they captured during that war is now part of Israel. It's inside the green line and globally recognized. Israel is also a member of the U.N. Also, the Palestinians recognize that land as being Israel's.The land that Israel declared independence on however was not conquered through force. The Jews practised sovereignty over the land, the SAME WAY THE PALESTINIANS DID OVER THEIR LAND, as I have proved. Declaring independence over land is NOT conquering it. Why can't you understand that ?

So because 5 neighboring countries attacked Israel (???) and lost (???) Israel won land from Palestine?

Do you have a link to that legal theory?

They won no land from the nation of Palestine because it does not yet exist, so the land outside of that allocated to Israel was free for the taking. Because the arab league invaded they altered the status of the land allowing Israel to lay claim to what they captured in 1949. This was inline with common practise at the time and did not constitute acquiring land by force. In 1967 it was a different set of rules in force and the land occupied belonged to Egypt and Jordan. So that land was not claimed as Israeli.

Do you understand this ?

You will have to argue that with Rocco. He said that the land was not up for grabs

 

[Phoenall]

It didn't acquire the land because it never had to. Acquiring land is a Tinmore pre requisite for becoming a country, remember?

Where does it say that in order to become a country, land must be acquired ? Where is it written that it is a pre requisite.

Cue song and dance 3, 2, 1 ....

A state needs a defined territory.

Where did Israel get a defined territory?

MY God you are stupid. International law dictates that Sovereign states have defined territory. Israel is a sovereign state. Therefore Israel has defined territory.

Now stop ducking my question. Where did you read that a country needs to ACQUIRE territory in order to declare independence ?

Well if it does not have any it needs to get it from someplace. Usually it is an agreement or treaty with those who have the territory you want.

That is what I have been looking for.

And you have been given the answer many times. The Mandate for Palestine granted the Jews the land as defined for their national home. In much the same way the LoN also granted Syria and trans Jordan the land for their national homes.
So there is your answer and if you don't like it then that is tough because it entered into International Law in 1923.

Where does it say that?

Quote the passage.

WHY? didn't you read it yesterday when I posted or the other many hundreds of times to this same demand. The words have not changed nor have the boundaries of the land granted. Just go back a few pages and read them again.

 

[Phoenall]

MY God you are stupid. International law dictates that Sovereign states have defined territory. Israel is a sovereign state. Therefore Israel has defined territory.

Now stop ducking my question. Where did you read that a country needs to ACQUIRE territory in order to declare independence ?

Well if it does not have any it needs to get it from someplace. Usually it is an agreement or treaty with those who have the territory you want.

That is what I have been looking for.

Acquiring land is a real estate issue. Practising sovereignty is a separate issue. That is how the land became Israel's. They declared sovereignty over the land, and were able to protect it.
I have never heard of, and you have never provided any evidence that one must ACQUIRE territory through a treaty or agreement.

I guess that whenever you create a state you need someplace to put it goes over your head.

And that was taken are of in 1923 when the Mandate for Palestine was written. Why do you have so much trouble understanding that the same laws that apply to Syria and Jordan also apply to Israel

Because they don't.

So the LoN mandate 's that allowed for the creation of Syria, Jordan, Iraq and Lebanon also created Israel. And that the Mandate's did not sign of on the nations created until 1947 to 1949. You cant alter laws just because Israel or the Jews benefit from them

 

[P F Tinmore]

A state needs a defined territory.

Where did Israel get a defined territory?

MY God you are stupid. International law dictates that Sovereign states have defined territory. Israel is a sovereign state. Therefore Israel has defined territory.

Now stop ducking my question. Where did you read that a country needs to ACQUIRE territory in order to declare independence ?

Well if it does not have any it needs to get it from someplace. Usually it is an agreement or treaty with those who have the territory you want.

That is what I have been looking for.

And you have been given the answer many times. The Mandate for Palestine granted the Jews the land as defined for their national home. In much the same way the LoN also granted Syria and trans Jordan the land for their national homes.
So there is your answer and if you don't like it then that is tough because it entered into International Law in 1923.

Where does it say that?

Quote the passage.

WHY? didn't you read it yesterday when I posted or the other many hundreds of times to this same demand. The words have not changed nor have the boundaries of the land granted. Just go back a few pages and read them again.

I didn't see anything about transferring land to Israel.

 

[P F Tinmore]

Well if it does not have any it needs to get it from someplace. Usually it is an agreement or treaty with those who have the territory you want.

That is what I have been looking for.

Acquiring land is a real estate issue. Practising sovereignty is a separate issue. That is how the land became Israel's. They declared sovereignty over the land, and were able to protect it.
I have never heard of, and you have never provided any evidence that one must ACQUIRE territory through a treaty or agreement.

I guess that whenever you create a state you need someplace to put it goes over your head.

And that was taken are of in 1923 when the Mandate for Palestine was written. Why do you have so much trouble understanding that the same laws that apply to Syria and Jordan also apply to Israel

Because they don't.

So the LoN mandate 's that allowed for the creation of Syria, Jordan, Iraq and Lebanon also created Israel. And that the Mandate's did not sign of on the nations created until 1947 to 1949. You cant alter laws just because Israel or the Jews benefit from them

Because the countries created were Lebanon, Syria, Jordan, Iraq, and Palestine.

 

[montelatici]

Actually, they were Europeans that went to Palestine and took the land by force. Illegal under international law. That's just a fact.

False, Israel declared independence over land allotted to her in the partition plan. the SAME way the Palestinians did.

IF what Israel did was illegal, the U.N would not have recognized her.

"This Palestinian Declaration of Independence explicitly accepted the UN General Assembly’s Partition Resolution 181(II) of 1947, which called for the creation of a Jewish state and an Arab state in the former Mandate for Palestine, together with an international trusteeship for the City of Jerusalem. The significance of the PNC’s acceptance of partition in the Palestinian Declaration of Independence itself cannot be overemphasized."

Europeans conquered land in Palestine through force. That is a fact. And, conquering land through force is illegal. What part of that do you not understand.

The Pope gave the Americas to Portugal and Spain. The English Crown chartered colonies in North America. It does not make it legal or right.

When five Arab states attacked Israel, Israel was on the defensive. The land they captured during that war is now part of Israel. It's inside the green line and globally recognized. Israel is also a member of the U.N. Also, the Palestinians recognize that land as being Israel's.The land that Israel declared independence on however was not conquered through force. The Jews practised sovereignty over the land, the SAME WAY THE PALESTINIANS DID OVER THEIR LAND, as I have proved. Declaring independence over land is NOT conquering it. Why can't you understand that ?

So because 5 neighboring countries attacked Israel (???) and lost (???) Israel won land from Palestine?

Do you have a link to that legal theory?

They won no land from the nation of Palestine because it does not yet exist, so the land outside of that allocated to Israel was free for the taking. Because the arab league invaded they altered the status of the land allowing Israel to lay claim to what they captured in 1949. This was inline with common practise at the time and did not constitute acquiring land by force. In 1967 it was a different set of rules in force and the land occupied belonged to Egypt and Jordan. So that land was not claimed as Israeli.

Do you understand this ?

The "Arab League" intervened in an attempt to stop the aggression of the hostile European colonists (HEC) who were planning to establish a separate European colony within Palestine. None of the land was "free for the taking" by European colonists. No matter how you dress it up, it was simply the dispossession of land from the local inhabitants by colonists from Europe.

Are you unable to comprehend this simple fact?

 

[Hossfly]

Referring to the OP, here's a video clip of a Palestinian Freedom Fighter defending himself from a couple of Israeli terrorists.


This shocking, violent video just released shows a barbaric Palestinian terror attack that killed a young man and wounded a 20-year-old woman in Jerusalem.

When Khaled Kutina, an Arab resident of Jerusalem, got into his car, it was with the intent to murder a Jew. Then he noticed Shalom Cherki and Shira Klein standing at a bus stop and raced his car directly into them. Shalom Cherki was killed and Shira is undergoing rehabilitation at a hospital.

This video shows the brutal attack in the UPPER RIGHT CORNER. It is quite violent and not suitablhttps://Footage of Car Terror Attack That Killed Shalom Sherki - YouTube for younger audiences.

 

[toastman]

What question?

When did Israel legally acquire the land that is sits on?

Que song and dance
3
2
1

It didn't acquire the land because it never had to. Acquiring land is a Tinmore pre requisite for becoming a country, remember?

Where does it say that in order to become a country, land must be acquired ? Where is it written that it is a pre requisite.

Cue song and dance 3, 2, 1 ....

A state needs a defined territory.

Where did Israel get a defined territory?

When it became a full member of the UN, which defined its territory. Since then it has acquired more land through custom and use that was unclaimed by anyone. It later defined its territory when it agreed mutual borders with Egypt and Jordan.

Now when did Palestine define its territory that was not in another nations possession at the time.

Palestine has not been part of another nation since 1924.

They personally defined their territory in their DOI in 1948.

You mean 1988. There was no DOI in 1948.

 

[toastman]

False, Israel declared independence over land allotted to her in the partition plan. the SAME way the Palestinians did.

IF what Israel did was illegal, the U.N would not have recognized her.

"This Palestinian Declaration of Independence explicitly accepted the UN General Assembly’s Partition Resolution 181(II) of 1947, which called for the creation of a Jewish state and an Arab state in the former Mandate for Palestine, together with an international trusteeship for the City of Jerusalem. The significance of the PNC’s acceptance of partition in the Palestinian Declaration of Independence itself cannot be overemphasized."

Europeans conquered land in Palestine through force. That is a fact. And, conquering land through force is illegal. What part of that do you not understand.

The Pope gave the Americas to Portugal and Spain. The English Crown chartered colonies in North America. It does not make it legal or right.

When five Arab states attacked Israel, Israel was on the defensive. The land they captured during that war is now part of Israel. It's inside the green line and globally recognized. Israel is also a member of the U.N. Also, the Palestinians recognize that land as being Israel's.The land that Israel declared independence on however was not conquered through force. The Jews practised sovereignty over the land, the SAME WAY THE PALESTINIANS DID OVER THEIR LAND, as I have proved. Declaring independence over land is NOT conquering it. Why can't you understand that ?

So because 5 neighboring countries attacked Israel (???) and lost (???) Israel won land from Palestine?

Do you have a link to that legal theory?

They won no land from the nation of Palestine because it does not yet exist, so the land outside of that allocated to Israel was free for the taking. Because the arab league invaded they altered the status of the land allowing Israel to lay claim to what they captured in 1949. This was inline with common practise at the time and did not constitute acquiring land by force. In 1967 it was a different set of rules in force and the land occupied belonged to Egypt and Jordan. So that land was not claimed as Israeli.

Do you understand this ?

The "Arab League" intervened in an attempt to stop the aggression of the hostile European colonists (HEC) who were planning to establish a separate European colony within Palestine. None of the land was "free for the taking" by European colonists. No matter how you dress it up, it was simply the dispossession of land from the local inhabitants by colonists from Europe.

Are you unable to comprehend this simple fact?

They surrounded Israel from all sides and attacked them with threats of annihalation. The 'European colonist' thing is Palestinian propaganda.

 

[toastman]

False, Israel declared independence over land allotted to her in the partition plan. the SAME way the Palestinians did.

IF what Israel did was illegal, the U.N would not have recognized her.

"This Palestinian Declaration of Independence explicitly accepted the UN General Assembly’s Partition Resolution 181(II) of 1947, which called for the creation of a Jewish state and an Arab state in the former Mandate for Palestine, together with an international trusteeship for the City of Jerusalem. The significance of the PNC’s acceptance of partition in the Palestinian Declaration of Independence itself cannot be overemphasized."

Europeans conquered land in Palestine through force. That is a fact. And, conquering land through force is illegal. What part of that do you not understand.

The Pope gave the Americas to Portugal and Spain. The English Crown chartered colonies in North America. It does not make it legal or right.

When five Arab states attacked Israel, Israel was on the defensive. The land they captured during that war is now part of Israel. It's inside the green line and globally recognized. Israel is also a member of the U.N. Also, the Palestinians recognize that land as being Israel's.The land that Israel declared independence on however was not conquered through force. The Jews practised sovereignty over the land, the SAME WAY THE PALESTINIANS DID OVER THEIR LAND, as I have proved. Declaring independence over land is NOT conquering it. Why can't you understand that ?

So because 5 neighboring countries attacked Israel (???) and lost (???) Israel won land from Palestine?

Do you have a link to that legal theory?

Why are you putting question marks next to facts?

What theory are you talking about ? Israel captured 50% of the land ALLOTTED to the Palestinians following the war.

You have the tendency to ask the most bizarre/ridiculous questions.

Because nobody has proven those so called facts to be true.

Yes we have . The problem is you are extremely immature and refuse to believe facts, because they conflict with your agenda.

 

[Phoenall]

MY God you are stupid. International law dictates that Sovereign states have defined territory. Israel is a sovereign state. Therefore Israel has defined territory.

Now stop ducking my question. Where did you read that a country needs to ACQUIRE territory in order to declare independence ?

Well if it does not have any it needs to get it from someplace. Usually it is an agreement or treaty with those who have the territory you want.

That is what I have been looking for.

And you have been given the answer many times. The Mandate for Palestine granted the Jews the land as defined for their national home. In much the same way the LoN also granted Syria and trans Jordan the land for their national homes.
So there is your answer and if you don't like it then that is tough because it entered into International Law in 1923.

Where does it say that?

Quote the passage.

WHY? didn't you read it yesterday when I posted or the other many hundreds of times to this same demand. The words have not changed nor have the boundaries of the land granted. Just go back a few pages and read them again.

I didn't see anything about transferring land to Israel.

Because Israel did not exist then, so it was called the National Home for the Jews. And it was also referred to as the Balfour declaration

 

[Phoenall]

Acquiring land is a real estate issue. Practising sovereignty is a separate issue. That is how the land became Israel's. They declared sovereignty over the land, and were able to protect it.
I have never heard of, and you have never provided any evidence that one must ACQUIRE territory through a treaty or agreement.

I guess that whenever you create a state you need someplace to put it goes over your head.

And that was taken are of in 1923 when the Mandate for Palestine was written. Why do you have so much trouble understanding that the same laws that apply to Syria and Jordan also apply to Israel

Because they don't.

So the LoN mandate 's that allowed for the creation of Syria, Jordan, Iraq and Lebanon also created Israel. And that the Mandate's did not sign of on the nations created until 1947 to 1949. You cant alter laws just because Israel or the Jews benefit from them

Because the countries created were Lebanon, Syria, Jordan, Iraq, and Palestine.

Nope as there is no mention in any LoN mandate of a Palestinian nation, what was mentioned was the Mandate for Palestin It was made abundantly clear that this was to be truncated to Palestine but meant the same thing. Unless you can find a LoN treaty that says otherwise ?

 

[Phoenall]

False, Israel declared independence over land allotted to her in the partition plan. the SAME way the Palestinians did.

IF what Israel did was illegal, the U.N would not have recognized her.

"This Palestinian Declaration of Independence explicitly accepted the UN General Assembly’s Partition Resolution 181(II) of 1947, which called for the creation of a Jewish state and an Arab state in the former Mandate for Palestine, together with an international trusteeship for the City of Jerusalem. The significance of the PNC’s acceptance of partition in the Palestinian Declaration of Independence itself cannot be overemphasized."

Europeans conquered land in Palestine through force. That is a fact. And, conquering land through force is illegal. What part of that do you not understand.

The Pope gave the Americas to Portugal and Spain. The English Crown chartered colonies in North America. It does not make it legal or right.

When five Arab states attacked Israel, Israel was on the defensive. The land they captured during that war is now part of Israel. It's inside the green line and globally recognized. Israel is also a member of the U.N. Also, the Palestinians recognize that land as being Israel's.The land that Israel declared independence on however was not conquered through force. The Jews practised sovereignty over the land, the SAME WAY THE PALESTINIANS DID OVER THEIR LAND, as I have proved. Declaring independence over land is NOT conquering it. Why can't you understand that ?

So because 5 neighboring countries attacked Israel (???) and lost (???) Israel won land from Palestine?

Do you have a link to that legal theory?

They won no land from the nation of Palestine because it does not yet exist, so the land outside of that allocated to Israel was free for the taking. Because the arab league invaded they altered the status of the land allowing Israel to lay claim to what they captured in 1949. This was inline with common practise at the time and did not constitute acquiring land by force. In 1967 it was a different set of rules in force and the land occupied belonged to Egypt and Jordan. So that land was not claimed as Israeli.

Do you understand this ?

The "Arab League" intervened in an attempt to stop the aggression of the hostile European colonists (HEC) who were planning to establish a separate European colony within Palestine. None of the land was "free for the taking" by European colonists. No matter how you dress it up, it was simply the dispossession of land from the local inhabitants by colonists from Europe.

Are you unable to comprehend this simple fact?

Wrong the arab league was formed to destroy Israel and wipe out the Jews.

What nation had legal sovereignty over the land left after Israel declared independence.

Also bear in mind that the arab muslims had received 78% of Palestine which was equivalent to the population split in 1923

 

[montelatici]

First of all Palestine was inhabited by Christians and Muslims. And less than half of Palestine was assigned to the Christians and Muslims at time of partition in 1947. Christians and Muslims represented more than two thirds of the population, notwithstanding the post war invasion/migration of the Europeans to Palestine. Trying to confound Trans-Jordania, a separate territory, with Palestine doesn't make it clown.

 

[Phoenall]

First of all Palestine was inhabited by Christians and Muslims. And less than half of Palestine was assigned to the Christians and Muslims at time of partition in 1947. Christians and Muslims represented more than two thirds of the population, notwithstanding the post war invasion/migration of the Europeans to Palestine. Trying to confound Trans-Jordania, a separate territory, with Palestine doesn't make it clown.

You are the clown as trans Jordan was part of the original land granted for the Jewish national home. It was then granted to some minor arab desert prince leaving just 22% of the original Palestine. But the LoN never removed trans Jordan from the Mandate for Palestine and the split in 1922 was along the lines of the population of that time. So the muslims received more than their 60% and still invaded the 22% left in the hopes of stealing the land. That is why the partition failed and it should never of happened, the Jews should have received it all and the arab muslims told they faced war with the UN id they did not accept the decision

 

[P F Tinmore]

Well if it does not have any it needs to get it from someplace. Usually it is an agreement or treaty with those who have the territory you want.

That is what I have been looking for.

And you have been given the answer many times. The Mandate for Palestine granted the Jews the land as defined for their national home. In much the same way the LoN also granted Syria and trans Jordan the land for their national homes.
So there is your answer and if you don't like it then that is tough because it entered into International Law in 1923.

Where does it say that?

Quote the passage.

WHY? didn't you read it yesterday when I posted or the other many hundreds of times to this same demand. The words have not changed nor have the boundaries of the land granted. Just go back a few pages and read them again.

I didn't see anything about transferring land to Israel.

Because Israel did not exist then, so it was called the National Home for the Jews. And it was also referred to as the Balfour declaration

The Balfour declaration was not a treaty. It was just a letter.

 

[Hossfly]

Referring to the OP, here's a video clip of a Palestinian Freedom Fighter defending himself from a couple of Israeli terrorists.


This shocking, violent video just released shows a barbaric Palestinian terror attack that killed a young man and wounded a 20-year-old woman in Jerusalem.

When Khaled Kutina, an Arab resident of Jerusalem, got into his car, it was with the intent to murder a Jew. Then he noticed Shalom Cherki and Shira Klein standing at a bus stop and raced his car directly into them. Shalom Cherki was killed and Shira is undergoing rehabilitation at a hospital.

This video shows the brutal attack in the UPPER RIGHT CORNER. It is quite violent and not suitablhttps://Footage of Car Terror Attack That Killed Shalom Sherki - YouTube for younger audiences.

Interesting video P F Tinmore

 

[toastman]

MY God you are stupid. International law dictates that Sovereign states have defined territory. Israel is a sovereign state. Therefore Israel has defined territory.

Now stop ducking my question. Where did you read that a country needs to ACQUIRE territory in order to declare independence ?

Well if it does not have any it needs to get it from someplace. Usually it is an agreement or treaty with those who have the territory you want.

That is what I have been looking for.

And you have been given the answer many times. The Mandate for Palestine granted the Jews the land as defined for their national home. In much the same way the LoN also granted Syria and trans Jordan the land for their national homes.
So there is your answer and if you don't like it then that is tough because it entered into International Law in 1923.

Where does it say that?

Quote the passage.

WHY? didn't you read it yesterday when I posted or the other many hundreds of times to this same demand. The words have not changed nor have the boundaries of the land granted. Just go back a few pages and read them again.

I didn't see anything about transferring land to Israel.

Can you quote the document that states that land must be transferred in order to declare independence.