Public Accommodation laws do no such thing.
If a Muslim business didn't sell halal compliant foods as part of their business model, they would not be required to start providing such foods because a customer ordered it.
On the other hand if a Muslim business DID offer non-halal foods as part of their business model, then they could not refuse to sell something they offered to a customer based on the criteria outlined in Colorado Revised Statutes 24-34-601(2).
The baker in question advertized and routinely supplied as a core function of their business wedding cakes, therefore under Colorado law they cannot discriminated based on various criteria (including sexual orientation) by not selling to a customer because of that critiera.
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Public Accommodations laws have never required a business to sell goods or services they don't already provide to the general public, they only require that goods and services already offered be provided in a non-discriminatory fashion.
What is so hard about that concept that people don't get, resulting in fanciful red-herrings that have nothing to do with what the law actually does?
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And you missed the entire point of my post. It would be unwise of me to further explain it. In both cases you are forcing someone to act against their faith, statutes be damned. One other thing, you must learn to differentiate between theory and actualization. I did not make such an assertion.
What is so hard about people making allowances for a person's faith? Is it necessary that they have to tout the law over the religious beliefs of someone else? Worship the laws of man over the laws of God, in essence.
First question, do you think that a business should be allowed to discriminate against blacks, Jews, Mexicans, women, handicapped?
Second question, do you think that if the owner of a business claims they have a religious belief that they shouldn't serve blacks, Jews, Mexicans, women, handicapped that they should be granted a special exception?
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