Phoenall, et al,
I think you have confused your terminology and timeline.
(COMMENT)Who gave them the land then, and were is the treaty agreed with the population and signed by their representative accepting the land ?This is all just recent politics that have no bearing on the roots of the problem.
It was definitely an aggressive conquest. There is no question about it.
The concept that Israel "defended itself" from the native population on their own land is too friggin bizarre for me to entertain particularly since the native population were civilians without an army.
Who "owns" the land is a civil real estate issue; with nothing to do with sovereignty.
In 1967, in a preemptive strike to thwart a coordinated attack by Arab Forces, Israeli Forces entered the West Bank and engaged Jordanian Forces on Jordanian territory (annexed in 1951). Israeli Forces routed the Jordanian Forces and Occupied the West Bank. In 1988, Jordan severed all ties and governance over the West Bank. In 1993, by means of Article 3 of the Israel-Jordanian Peace Treaty, the international boundary was set:
Article 3 - International Boundary said:1. The international boundary between Israel and Jordan is delimited with reference to the boundary definition under the Mandate as is shown in Annex I(a), on the mapping materials attached thereto and co-ordinates specified therein.
2. The boundary, as set out in Annex I (a), is the permanent, secure and recognised international boundary between Israel and Jordan, without prejudice to the status of any territories that came under Israeli military government control in 1967.
3. The parties recognise the international boundary, as well as each other's territory, territorial waters and airspace, as inviolable, and will respect and comply with them.
4. The demarcation of the boundary will take place as set forth in Appendix (I) to Annex I and will be concluded not later than nine months after the signing of the Treaty.
In 1967, in a preemptive strike to thwart a coordinated attack by Arab Forces, Israeli Forces entered the Gaza Strip which was occupied by Egyptian Forces. The Egyptian Forces were routed and Israeli Forces assumed the occupation. In 1979, by means of Article II of the Israel-Egyptian Peace Treaty, the international boundary was set:
Article II said:The permanent boundary between Egypt and Israel is the recognized international boundary between Egypt and the former mandated territory of Palestine, as shown on the map at Annex II, without prejudice to the issue of the status of the Gaza Strip. The Parties recognize this boundary as inviolable. Each will respect the territorial integrity of the other, including their territorial waters and airspace.
Most Respectfully,
R
"In 1967, in a preemptive strike "
Like Pearl Harbor.
No as Pearl Harbour was a declaration of war, the US had not stated its intentions to attack Japan
The U.S. implemented an oil embargo on Japan/Egypt closed the Straits of Tiran (access to Aqaba) both moves were interpreted as acts of war. Japan strikes pre-emptively/Israel strikes pre-emptively.
So you are saying that the arab muslims have declared war on Israel by implementing the BDS. So Israel can bomb the crap out of Iran because a state of war exists.
TRY harder child and this time mention the wars Japan was already waging in Asia in an attempt at domination