Faun
Diamond Member
- Nov 14, 2011
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I do not have proof but logically there is a greater risk of fraud. I stated that I do not have proof. I gave an example of how much easier it is to garner votes via absentee ballots vs. in person and that is regardless of party affiliation.
No, you didn't give any such an examples of fraud. You gave an imaginary situation where unregistered people get ballots and of others who can vote for you by mail; but they could also do that in person as well. So you actually provided zero examples of mail-in ballots providing a higher probability of fraud.
And your latest hypothetical is merely a tweak from a previous hypothetical where you used other family members' ballots but then were stumped when I pointed out in a real situation like that, there would be cases of where some of the other family members would have voted themselves, causing them to vote twice. Which is a crime of which no one was actually accused of doing under such circumstances in 2020. Prolly why you tweaked your hypothetical to avoid such [non-existent] cases.
Bottom line ... again ... you have absolutely nothing to back your claims that mail-in ballots lead to more fraud. And because you can't prove any such fraud, which even you admit you can't prove -- there are no bad optics. Just your overactive imagination.