freedombecki
Let's go swimmin'!
The reason that homosexuality was first introduced in the Bible after the turn of the century is because the word homosexual, according to Mirriam-Webster, was in 1892:I'm not a big fan of certain parts of the Bible, but I'm pretty sure you're not supposed to alter it any way, shape, or form...Homosexuality was first mentioned in the Bible in 1946 in the Revised Standard Version. There is no mention of or reference to homosexuality in any Bible prior to this only interpretations have been made. Anti-LGBT Bible interpretations commonly cite only eight verses in the Bible that they interpret to mean homosexuality is a sin; Eight verses in a book of thousands!
SOURCE: Introducing The Queen James Bible
First Known Use of HOMOSEXUAL
1892
It's a modern word. There were other words used to describe the condition, which likely was around prior to 1892. In the Book of Kings or Chronicles, where battles were described, I recollect a description of a battle-successful group referred to as "an Army of Eunuchs." Those men were also used to guard the King's harems. I'm not 100% sure, but that seems that two nearby named "Sodom and Gomorrah" were known particularly as towns of infinite debauchery described as being destroyed by fire from the sky after Lot and his wife left them on orders of an angel of God when a visitor was assaulted by a mob of not very nice folk.
I think the word "sodomy" may have been named after a practice in the town of Sodom, but I'm not sure the words that were used in describing its destruction, it's been a while since I read Genesis, as I'm in the book of Psalms in my readings now.