Quantum Windbag
Gold Member
- May 9, 2010
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- #961
If any investors other than the Fed owned those bonds, the Treasury would have to pay full interest on them. Because the Fed owns them, the Treasury only pays expenses of the Fed, saving the rest. Do you not understand basic mathematics?
You are seriously one of the dumbest people I've ever met.
Do you not understand that spending money on something else is not saving it?
Do you understand that interest in excess of Fed expenses isn't actually spent on something else - or anything?
Look, its simple jackass. Say you buy a 5 year $1000 note that pays 1% interest. Now the Treasury has to pay you $10 a year for 5 years, then $1000 at the end.
Say you sell that note to the Federal Reserve before the principal comes due. Now the Treasury has to only pay enough of that $10 per year to cover the Fed's expenses - that's typically about 10%, so they only pay the Fed $1 a year. So they pay the Fed $1 a year instead of $10, and $1000 at the end - saving the taxpayers $9 a year.
Its really simple.
They then take that money, spend it on something else, and then borrows the amount of money we just "saved."
Like you said, really simple, and proof that the government is not not saving the taxpayer any money.