Silhouette
Gold Member
- Jul 15, 2013
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- #421
How can children that not exist be an "implicit partner" to a marriage contract? Hint: They can't.
Yes, they can, when one considers marriage is an institution with regards to all children born or unborn as yet. American children are implicit partners as a whole to the marriage contract.
No, they can't and we've never done so in this nation. It's why you've never heard anyone but you argue that children are an implicit partner in a marriage contract. People that don't exist can't be a party to a contract.
But that's not why marriage was invented since time immemorial to 2015. It was invented anticipating the arrival of children and so, the unborn or as-yet unconceived DO have rights in that scenario where the states incentivizing marriage is concerned. If you think you're going to convince the 85% who feel motherless/fatherless marriages are not right where children are concerned, you have your work cut out for you.
Times have changed, but not that much as it turns out: Poll. Please Vote. Did You Have a Mother & Father in Your Life?