Avorysuds
Gold Member
The founding fathers wrote the constitution.
Therefore the founding fathers put in place a device which specifically allows for this action.
I don't really know what you're talking about with automatically assuming they would agree. They laid it out in the constitution.
"No person shall be held to answer for a capital, or otherwise infamous crime, unless on a presentment or indictment of a Grand Jury, except in cases arising in the land or naval forces, or in the Militia, when in actual service in time of War or public danger;"
Is the argument that this guy did not present a public danger?
Was our public at danger? Prove it...
Are we in a real war with him? Prove it...
Prove that our public is in danger from Al Qaeda?
There was this big deal about ten years back, you may have heard of it....
Ahh, so you have no proof that the public was in any danger at all... So you defeated your own argument with the constitution.
Were we at War with him? Or is that just a term used without a declaration?
How long do we get to kill people based on what happened 10+ years ago?
How does what happened 10+ years ago make our public unsafe today, or more specific, the day he was killed, hell, the week this man was killed?
Would you say this killing was "pre emptive?" It sure sounds that way.