Palestinian Peace Proposal

[RoccoR]

P F Tinmore, et al,

This logic is a double-edged sword --- especially for the Palestinian Arab --- the enemy population in WWI and the enemy population in WWII.

In the first place the UN without the consent of the majority of the people of Palestine did not have the right to decide to partition Palestine or assign any part of its territory to a minority of alien immigrants in order for them to establish a state of their own.

(COMMENT)

When did the Arab Palestinian gain the authority over the area formerly under Mandate?

Despite that, by the narrowest of margins, and only after a rigged vote, the UN General Assembly did pass a resolution to partition Palestine and create two states, one Arab, one Jewish, with Jerusalem not part of either. But the General Assembly resolution was only a non-binding proposal – meaning that it could have no effect, would not become binding, until and unless it was approved by the Security Council.

The truth is that the General Assembly’s partition proposal never went to the Security Council for consideration. Why not? Because the US knew that, if approved, and because of Arab and other Muslim opposition, it could only be implemented by force; and President Truman was not prepared to use force to partition Palestine.

(COMMENT)

First --- the Partition Plan [A/RES/181 (II)] UN Voting (NOT by the Narrowest of Margins):

• Final vote
  • In favor, (33 countries, 72% of voting)
  • Against, (13 countries, 28% of voting)
  • Abstentions, (10 countries)
  • Absent, (1 country)

The truth is, the Partition Plan [A/RES/181 (II)] went to the UN Security Council; with the Security Council playing a vital role in the implementation of the Plan (Part I --- Section B Steps Preparatory to Independence):

14. The Commission shall be guided in its activities by the recommendations of the General Assembly and by such instructions as the Security Council may consider necessary to issue.

The measures taken by the Commission, within the recommendations of the General Assembly, shall become immediately effective unless the Commission has previously received contrary instructions from the Security Council.​

As it was put to me many years ago by Khalad al-Hassan, Fatah’s intellectual giant on the right, that legitimacy was “the only thing the Zionists could not take from us by force.”

The truth of history as summarised briefly above is the explanation of why, really, Zionism has always insisted that its absolute pre-condition for negotiations with more than a snowball’s chance in hell of a successful outcome (an acceptable measure of justice for the Palestinians and peace for all) is recognition of Israel’s right to exist. A right, it knows, it does not have and will never have unless the Palestinians grant it.

(COMMENT)

The Zionist, or any name by which the Arab wish to describe the Jewish immigrants willing to assist in the establishment of the Jewish National Home under the Mandate for Palestine, as citizens of Palestine, had the exact same rights to self-determination as the Arab and did not take the territory described under the Partition Plan by force. Instead, the conflict was triggered by Hostile Arab Palestinians represented "Powerful Arab interests, both inside and outside Palestine, defying the resolution [A/RES/181(II)] of the General Assembly and engaged in a deliberate effort to alter by force (as aggressor nations) the settlement envisaged therein."

Most Respectfully,
R

 

[P F Tinmore]

They were created the same.

But then foreigners went down to Palestine from Europe and drove the natives out of their homes.

Actions have reactions.

Indeed they do. The Zionists started a never ending war.

Actually, the Arabs started the war. They started the initial war in 1947, and 5 Arab states started the war in 1948, which is what really started the main problems for the Palestinians. So much for the 5 Arab states trying to help the Palestinians

So the Zionists went to Palestine so the Arabs would start a war with them?

You are a hoot.

Not quite the Zionists were invited to Palestine by its sovereign owners because the land was devoid of life. Once they started to make the land fertile and capable of sustaining life the arab muslims migrated illegally. When they found the Jews were more hardy than those they were used to they decided to attack and steal their lands, only to be beaten back. So they started a series of lies and blood libels to blacken the Jews name and to attract more terrorists to their cause. The war has been ongoing since mohammed instigated the genocide of the Jewish tribe at Medina

Where is the treaty ceding land to Israel?

Link?

 

[toastman]

Actions have reactions.

Indeed they do. The Zionists started a never ending war.

Actually, the Arabs started the war. They started the initial war in 1947, and 5 Arab states started the war in 1948, which is what really started the main problems for the Palestinians. So much for the 5 Arab states trying to help the Palestinians

So the Zionists went to Palestine so the Arabs would start a war with them?

You are a hoot.

Not quite the Zionists were invited to Palestine by its sovereign owners because the land was devoid of life. Once they started to make the land fertile and capable of sustaining life the arab muslims migrated illegally. When they found the Jews were more hardy than those they were used to they decided to attack and steal their lands, only to be beaten back. So they started a series of lies and blood libels to blacken the Jews name and to attract more terrorists to their cause. The war has been ongoing since mohammed instigated the genocide of the Jewish tribe at Medina

Where is the treaty ceding land to Israel?

Link?

There is no treaty ceding land to Israel. This is not a real estate issue. Where does it say that there must be a treaty to cede land in order to declare independence ?

You keep bringing up this land transfer treaty as if it is a pre requisite to declare independence, but it's not.

 

[P F Tinmore]

P F Tinmore, et al,

This logic is a double-edged sword --- especially for the Palestinian Arab --- the enemy population in WWI and the enemy population in WWII.

In the first place the UN without the consent of the majority of the people of Palestine did not have the right to decide to partition Palestine or assign any part of its territory to a minority of alien immigrants in order for them to establish a state of their own.

(COMMENT)

When did the Arab Palestinian gain the authority over the area formerly under Mandate?

Despite that, by the narrowest of margins, and only after a rigged vote, the UN General Assembly did pass a resolution to partition Palestine and create two states, one Arab, one Jewish, with Jerusalem not part of either. But the General Assembly resolution was only a non-binding proposal – meaning that it could have no effect, would not become binding, until and unless it was approved by the Security Council.

The truth is that the General Assembly’s partition proposal never went to the Security Council for consideration. Why not? Because the US knew that, if approved, and because of Arab and other Muslim opposition, it could only be implemented by force; and President Truman was not prepared to use force to partition Palestine.

(COMMENT)

First --- the Partition Plan [A/RES/181 (II)] UN Voting (NOT by the Narrowest of Margins):

• Final vote
  • In favor, (33 countries, 72% of voting)
  • Against, (13 countries, 28% of voting)
  • Abstentions, (10 countries)
  • Absent, (1 country)

The truth is, the Partition Plan [A/RES/181 (II)] went to the UN Security Council; with the Security Council playing a vital role in the implementation of the Plan (Part I --- Section B Steps Preparatory to Independence):

14. The Commission shall be guided in its activities by the recommendations of the General Assembly and by such instructions as the Security Council may consider necessary to issue.

The measures taken by the Commission, within the recommendations of the General Assembly, shall become immediately effective unless the Commission has previously received contrary instructions from the Security Council.​

As it was put to me many years ago by Khalad al-Hassan, Fatah’s intellectual giant on the right, that legitimacy was “the only thing the Zionists could not take from us by force.”

The truth of history as summarised briefly above is the explanation of why, really, Zionism has always insisted that its absolute pre-condition for negotiations with more than a snowball’s chance in hell of a successful outcome (an acceptable measure of justice for the Palestinians and peace for all) is recognition of Israel’s right to exist. A right, it knows, it does not have and will never have unless the Palestinians grant it.

(COMMENT)

The Zionist, or any name by which the Arab wish to describe the Jewish immigrants willing to assist in the establishment of the Jewish National Home under the Mandate for Palestine, as citizens of Palestine, had the exact same rights to self-determination as the Arab and did not take the territory described under the Partition Plan by force. Instead, the conflict was triggered by Hostile Arab Palestinians represented "Powerful Arab interests, both inside and outside Palestine, defying the resolution [A/RES/181(II)] of the General Assembly and engaged in a deliberate effort to alter by force (as aggressor nations) the settlement envisaged therein."

Most Respectfully,
R

When did the Arab Palestinian gain the authority over the area formerly under Mandate?​

3. Reaffirms the inalienable right of the peoples of Namibia and Zimbabwe, of the Palestinian people and of all peoples under alien and colonial domination to self-determination, national independence, territorial integrity, and national unity and sovereignty without external interference;

A RES 33 24 of 29 November 1978

Prior to 1978.

At what time and under what circumstances did the Palestinians gain the right to territorial integrity?

 

[P F Tinmore]

Indeed they do. The Zionists started a never ending war.

Actually, the Arabs started the war. They started the initial war in 1947, and 5 Arab states started the war in 1948, which is what really started the main problems for the Palestinians. So much for the 5 Arab states trying to help the Palestinians

So the Zionists went to Palestine so the Arabs would start a war with them?

You are a hoot.

Not quite the Zionists were invited to Palestine by its sovereign owners because the land was devoid of life. Once they started to make the land fertile and capable of sustaining life the arab muslims migrated illegally. When they found the Jews were more hardy than those they were used to they decided to attack and steal their lands, only to be beaten back. So they started a series of lies and blood libels to blacken the Jews name and to attract more terrorists to their cause. The war has been ongoing since mohammed instigated the genocide of the Jewish tribe at Medina

Where is the treaty ceding land to Israel?

Link?

There is no treaty ceding land to Israel. This is not a real estate issue. Where does it say that there must be a treaty to cede land in order to declare independence ?

You keep bringing up this land transfer treaty as if it is a pre requisite to declare independence, but it's not.

A state should have a "defined territory." Where did Israel get a defined territory?

 

[member]

They were created the same.

But then foreigners went down to Palestine from Europe and drove the natives out of their homes.

Actions have reactions.

Indeed they do. The Zionists started a never ending war.

Actually, the Arabs started the war. They started the initial war in 1947, and 5 Arab states started the war in 1948, which is what really started the main problems for the Palestinians. So much for the 5 Arab states trying to help the Palestinians

So the Zionists went to Palestine so the Arabs would start a war with them?

You are a hoot.

So that;s the conclusion you came up with after reading my post? You have serious issues with reading comprehension.

The Zionists went to 'Palestine' to create a homeland for themselves, and were attacked by Arabs. I have proved this many many many MANY times. After declaring independence, 5 Arab states invaded the region and attacked Israel from all sides. How did Israel start a war ?

"The Zionists went to 'Palestine' to create a homeland for themselves..."

1 place...it was already planned in advance.......(a.f.a.G.i.c. - y.G.)...

 

[toastman]

Actually, the Arabs started the war. They started the initial war in 1947, and 5 Arab states started the war in 1948, which is what really started the main problems for the Palestinians. So much for the 5 Arab states trying to help the Palestinians

So the Zionists went to Palestine so the Arabs would start a war with them?

You are a hoot.

Not quite the Zionists were invited to Palestine by its sovereign owners because the land was devoid of life. Once they started to make the land fertile and capable of sustaining life the arab muslims migrated illegally. When they found the Jews were more hardy than those they were used to they decided to attack and steal their lands, only to be beaten back. So they started a series of lies and blood libels to blacken the Jews name and to attract more terrorists to their cause. The war has been ongoing since mohammed instigated the genocide of the Jewish tribe at Medina

Where is the treaty ceding land to Israel?

Link?

There is no treaty ceding land to Israel. This is not a real estate issue. Where does it say that there must be a treaty to cede land in order to declare independence ?

You keep bringing up this land transfer treaty as if it is a pre requisite to declare independence, but it's not.

A state should have a "defined territory." Where did Israel get a defined territory?

Nice deflection.

Israel is a sovereign state. A sovereign state must have defined territory. Israel got it when they declared independence on that land (obviously(

 

[P F Tinmore]

So the Zionists went to Palestine so the Arabs would start a war with them?

You are a hoot.

Not quite the Zionists were invited to Palestine by its sovereign owners because the land was devoid of life. Once they started to make the land fertile and capable of sustaining life the arab muslims migrated illegally. When they found the Jews were more hardy than those they were used to they decided to attack and steal their lands, only to be beaten back. So they started a series of lies and blood libels to blacken the Jews name and to attract more terrorists to their cause. The war has been ongoing since mohammed instigated the genocide of the Jewish tribe at Medina

Where is the treaty ceding land to Israel?

Link?

There is no treaty ceding land to Israel. This is not a real estate issue. Where does it say that there must be a treaty to cede land in order to declare independence ?

You keep bringing up this land transfer treaty as if it is a pre requisite to declare independence, but it's not.

A state should have a "defined territory." Where did Israel get a defined territory?

Nice deflection.

Israel is a sovereign state. A sovereign state must have defined territory. Israel got it when they declared independence on that land (obviously(

Link defining the land Israel received in 1948.

 

[toastman]

Not quite the Zionists were invited to Palestine by its sovereign owners because the land was devoid of life. Once they started to make the land fertile and capable of sustaining life the arab muslims migrated illegally. When they found the Jews were more hardy than those they were used to they decided to attack and steal their lands, only to be beaten back. So they started a series of lies and blood libels to blacken the Jews name and to attract more terrorists to their cause. The war has been ongoing since mohammed instigated the genocide of the Jewish tribe at Medina

Where is the treaty ceding land to Israel?

Link?

There is no treaty ceding land to Israel. This is not a real estate issue. Where does it say that there must be a treaty to cede land in order to declare independence ?

You keep bringing up this land transfer treaty as if it is a pre requisite to declare independence, but it's not.

A state should have a "defined territory." Where did Israel get a defined territory?

Nice deflection.

Israel is a sovereign state. A sovereign state must have defined territory. Israel got it when they declared independence on that land (obviously(

Link defining the land Israel received in 1948.

Israel didn't 'receive' land. They declared independence on the land allotted to her in the partition plan. That land then became known as 'Israel'. What's so hard to understand ?
You keep applying 'Tinmore Pre Requisites' to real life, If it was necessary for Israel to sign some sort of treaty to acquire land in order for them to declare independence, then the U.N certainly would not have approved of the creation of the new state and would not have made Israel a full member one year later...

 

[P F Tinmore]

They were created the same.

But then foreigners went down to Palestine from Europe and drove the natives out of their homes.

Actions have reactions.

Indeed they do. The Zionists started a never ending war.

Actually, the Arabs started the war. They started the initial war in 1947, and 5 Arab states started the war in 1948, which is what really started the main problems for the Palestinians. So much for the 5 Arab states trying to help the Palestinians

So the Zionists went to Palestine so the Arabs would start a war with them?

You are a hoot.

So that;s the conclusion you came up with after reading my post? You have serious issues with reading comprehension.

The Zionists went to 'Palestine' to create a homeland for themselves, and were attacked by Arabs. I have proved this many many many MANY times. After declaring independence, 5 Arab states invaded the region and attacked Israel from all sides. How did Israel start a war ?

The Zionists went to 'Palestine' to create a homeland for themselves,​

You left something out.

The Zionists went to 'Palestine' to create a homeland for themselves, in Palestine.

And they do not want it there.

 

[P F Tinmore]

Where is the treaty ceding land to Israel?

Link?

There is no treaty ceding land to Israel. This is not a real estate issue. Where does it say that there must be a treaty to cede land in order to declare independence ?

You keep bringing up this land transfer treaty as if it is a pre requisite to declare independence, but it's not.

A state should have a "defined territory." Where did Israel get a defined territory?

Nice deflection.

Israel is a sovereign state. A sovereign state must have defined territory. Israel got it when they declared independence on that land (obviously(

Link defining the land Israel received in 1948.

Israel didn't 'receive' land. They declared independence on the land allotted to her in the partition plan. That land then became known as 'Israel'. What's so hard to understand ?
You keep applying 'Tinmore Pre Requisites' to real life, If it was necessary for Israel to sign some sort of treaty to acquire land in order for them to declare independence, then the U.N certainly would not have approved of the creation of the new state and would not have made Israel a full member one year later...

They declared independence on the land allotted to her in the partition plan.​

That there was no allocation in the partition plan. It was just a plan that was not implemented.

 

[toastman]

There is no treaty ceding land to Israel. This is not a real estate issue. Where does it say that there must be a treaty to cede land in order to declare independence ?

You keep bringing up this land transfer treaty as if it is a pre requisite to declare independence, but it's not.

A state should have a "defined territory." Where did Israel get a defined territory?

Nice deflection.

Israel is a sovereign state. A sovereign state must have defined territory. Israel got it when they declared independence on that land (obviously(

Link defining the land Israel received in 1948.

Israel didn't 'receive' land. They declared independence on the land allotted to her in the partition plan. That land then became known as 'Israel'. What's so hard to understand ?
You keep applying 'Tinmore Pre Requisites' to real life, If it was necessary for Israel to sign some sort of treaty to acquire land in order for them to declare independence, then the U.N certainly would not have approved of the creation of the new state and would not have made Israel a full member one year later...

They declared independence on the land allotted to her in the partition plan.​

That there was no allocation in the partition plan. It was just a plan that was not implemented.

Again Tinmore???? Remember, I have links that say otherwise... All you have are a bunch of ridiculous questions



"This Palestinian Declaration of Independence explicitly accepted the UN General Assembly’s Partition Resolution 181(II) of 1947"


Palestine Independence Day 24 Years Ago November 15 1988 Global Research - Centre for Research on Globalization

 

[toastman]

There is no treaty ceding land to Israel. This is not a real estate issue. Where does it say that there must be a treaty to cede land in order to declare independence ?

You keep bringing up this land transfer treaty as if it is a pre requisite to declare independence, but it's not.

A state should have a "defined territory." Where did Israel get a defined territory?

Nice deflection.

Israel is a sovereign state. A sovereign state must have defined territory. Israel got it when they declared independence on that land (obviously(

Link defining the land Israel received in 1948.

Israel didn't 'receive' land. They declared independence on the land allotted to her in the partition plan. That land then became known as 'Israel'. What's so hard to understand ?
You keep applying 'Tinmore Pre Requisites' to real life, If it was necessary for Israel to sign some sort of treaty to acquire land in order for them to declare independence, then the U.N certainly would not have approved of the creation of the new state and would not have made Israel a full member one year later...

They declared independence on the land allotted to her in the partition plan.​

That there was no allocation in the partition plan. It was just a plan that was not implemented.

"The land allocated to the Arab State in the final plan"


United Nations Partition Plan for Palestine - Wikipedia the free encyclopedia

 

[P F Tinmore]

A state should have a "defined territory." Where did Israel get a defined territory?

Nice deflection.

Israel is a sovereign state. A sovereign state must have defined territory. Israel got it when they declared independence on that land (obviously(

Link defining the land Israel received in 1948.

Israel didn't 'receive' land. They declared independence on the land allotted to her in the partition plan. That land then became known as 'Israel'. What's so hard to understand ?
You keep applying 'Tinmore Pre Requisites' to real life, If it was necessary for Israel to sign some sort of treaty to acquire land in order for them to declare independence, then the U.N certainly would not have approved of the creation of the new state and would not have made Israel a full member one year later...

They declared independence on the land allotted to her in the partition plan.​

That there was no allocation in the partition plan. It was just a plan that was not implemented.

Again Tinmore???? Remember, I have links that say otherwise... All you have are a bunch of ridiculous questions



"This Palestinian Declaration of Independence explicitly accepted the UN General Assembly’s Partition Resolution 181(II) of 1947"


Palestine Independence Day 24 Years Ago November 15 1988 Global Research - Centre for Research on Globalization

Israel lied about accepting resolution 181 to pretend to be legitimate.

It doesn't matter. they were riding a dead horse.

 

[toastman]

"in the part of Palestine allocated to them in the Partition plan"

UN Resolution 181 - 1948

 

[toastman]

Nice deflection.

Israel is a sovereign state. A sovereign state must have defined territory. Israel got it when they declared independence on that land (obviously(

Link defining the land Israel received in 1948.

Israel didn't 'receive' land. They declared independence on the land allotted to her in the partition plan. That land then became known as 'Israel'. What's so hard to understand ?
You keep applying 'Tinmore Pre Requisites' to real life, If it was necessary for Israel to sign some sort of treaty to acquire land in order for them to declare independence, then the U.N certainly would not have approved of the creation of the new state and would not have made Israel a full member one year later...

They declared independence on the land allotted to her in the partition plan.​

That there was no allocation in the partition plan. It was just a plan that was not implemented.

Again Tinmore???? Remember, I have links that say otherwise... All you have are a bunch of ridiculous questions



"This Palestinian Declaration of Independence explicitly accepted the UN General Assembly’s Partition Resolution 181(II) of 1947"


Palestine Independence Day 24 Years Ago November 15 1988 Global Research - Centre for Research on Globalization

Israel lied about accepting resolution 181 to pretend to be legitimate.

It doesn't matter. they were riding a dead horse.

You keep posting the same lies about resolution 181. You need to stop doing that.

 

[toastman]

WRMEA The Origins of the Israeli-Palestinian Conflict

"UN Resolution 181 allotted Jews 56 percent of the territory of Palestine"

 

[toastman]

"The Jews, on the other hand, hoped to gain control over the territory allotted to them under the Partition Plan."

The Arab-Israeli War of 1948 - 1945 1952 - Milestones - Office of the Historian

 

[toastman]

"Moreover, the territory allocated to the Jewish State"

http://world-ice.com/Articles/Inequity.pdf

 

[toastman]

I can keep going if you'd like Tinmore...