Opposition to polygamy -- any basis otehr than bigotry or lack of Biblical knowledge?

Discussion in 'Religion and Ethics' started by edward777, Jul 4, 2011.

  1. edward777
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    edward777 Rookie

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    Seriously, if we say two men can marry why not allow a man and two women to marry? We have a seriously low birthrate in the developed nations and polygamy would help. We might also bump up the quality of the gene pool a bit if women could marry men who were higher up on the food chain rather than having to settle on bottom feeders.

    And never once did the Bible condemn polygamy. In fact only the Koran limits the number of wives a man can have to four.
     
  2. VaderNinurta
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    VaderNinurta Rookie

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    If you try and plunge into the inadequacies of human thought and behavior, you will only be dumbfounded and frustrated by the illusiveness of any conclusive answers.

    Most peoples beliefs are based on subjective emotional impulses, as a result they exist inside a recurring loop of irrationality. They are not in a position to posit what is right or wrong as their foundational basis of thinking is flawed by their limited, illusory insight.

    There is Order in the Universe which can be observed OBJECTIVELY, and through the elucidation of this Order it is possible to arrive at a place of understanding, where right and wrong can correctly be understood.
     
    Last edited: Jul 4, 2011
  3. C_Clayton_Jones
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    C_Clayton_Jones Diamond Member

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    Disallowing same-sex marriage is a violation of the Equal Protection Clause of the 14th Amendment because it singles-out a specific class of persons for discrimination.

    Laws banning polygamy apply equally to all, there is no specific class singled-out. Because no civil rights are preempted, states and other jurisdictions need not justify their actions because no court challenge is warranted. Consequently your question is moot.

    If a state were to disallow polygamy for Asians only, for example, that would be a possible violation and warrant a challenge in Federal court.

    States have great latitude with regard to the laws they enact, provided they’re applied equally to all citizens and all citizens have equal access to the laws.
     
  4. edward777
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    edward777 Rookie

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    Not so -- two people who share the same father may not marry in any state even though they are male and female so one could apply your reasoning and say that the states discriminate on the basis of family.
     
  5. C_Clayton_Jones
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    C_Clayton_Jones Diamond Member

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    Incorrect, as this also applies to all equally.

    Now, if the state were to pass a law saying two Asian people who share the same father may not marry, that may be a 14th Amendment violation.

    And it’s not ‘my reasoning,’ btw, it’s the Framers’ of the 14th Amendment and the Supreme Court’s.
     
  6. edward777
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    edward777 Rookie

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    Just because a bad law applies to all does not make it right, or constitutional. I really do not believe the founders of this nation would nave accepted your premise at all.

    Now if you want to go by Supreme Court cases the Reyholds decision to make polygamy illegal also ruled the the USA was a Christian nation and that marriage was to be between a man and a woman.
     
  7. C_Clayton_Jones
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    C_Clayton_Jones Diamond Member

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    There are many laws that are bad but are also Constitutional, see: PA.

    The Constitution protects the civil rights of Americans from government excess, it was never designed to protect them from bad laws.

    Citation?
    ?

    United States v. Reynolds? What does a case where government privilege to withhold information for reasons of national security have to do with polygamy, a Christian nation, and marriage between a man and a woman?
     
  8. edward777
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    edward777 Rookie

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  10. California Girl
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    Fucking misogynists. Why is it always about how many wives some guy can have? What about women having 4 husbands?
     

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