NYcarbineer
Diamond Member
I've read several items within the past couple of weeks which refer to an over sampling of Democrats in current polls.
I had simply brushed it off being that the claims are not getting a ton of attention. Being that I know little of the process by which these polls are compiled I suppose I figured there was a very good reason for it.
PEW POLL METHODOLOGY QUESTIONED
Polling this year typically includes more self-identified Democrats than Republicans.
The article seems to imply there is not some esoteric reasoning behind this but I've heard it mentioned so often despite virtually no collective outrage over it that I'm wondering if anyone can explain why pollsters might do this, aside from the obvious.
They do over sample Democrats. Which is why Reagan, Bush Sr., & Bush Jr. were all (according to the polls) supposed to lose their elections.
What's the point of lying?
Bush Jr. was ahead of Kerry in about 80 of the last 90 polls taken from the 1st of September to the election.