TakeAStepBack
Gold Member
- Mar 29, 2011
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It's a Catch 22 or chicken and egg kind of thing. Law with no authority to enforce it is an expectation rather than law--so you can't have law without some form of government. And you can't have a government without law. Even your linked definition backs up the concept.
Strange. it happened often in colonial times. Common law prevailed. No formal government. People who stole, nurdered, etc, were dealt with by the community. So there was law, and there was enforcement of it. At the same time, there was no formal government.
Amazing!
It doesn't have to be written down. If the community enforced the laws they expected to be followed, there WAS government. Maybe not an official one, but one that was recognized by all just the same. Anarchy however does not protect the rights of the weak but allows the strongest to prevail whether that be for good or for bad. It is the way of the wild beast and to the victor go the spoils.
Humankind via social contract found a way in the original U.S. Constitution to protect the weak while not inhibiting the more industrious, creative, innovative, brave to move society forward as the society chose to do. But without protection of those unalienable rights, there would not have been the progress, prosperity, innovation, creativity, and/or benevolence that American people inevitably produce given the liberty and time to accomplish their goals.
It was a government given its power by the people rather than the government assigning the rights to the people.
And it was not anarchy or anything close to that.
Are we playing repeater now?
Again, no one is suggesting the constitutional govt of the founders was anarchy. Not in the least.
The rest of that can not be substantiated in the least. It's a logical fallacy to suggest what might have occurred absent the US govt. in north america.