no. stupid question. are you ******* kidding me? absolutely not. again, stupid question. it isn'tokay...
polygamy is illegal for all people. the sex of the parties involved does not matter, hence nobody is discriminated against.
Ok but what if polygamy is their religion? Then it's discriminating. Right?
Correct.
But polygamy isn't marriage, it's just living together, having nothing to do with same-sex couples seeking to marry, as the states can't criminalize people 'living in sin.'
Bigamy is another matter altogether – three or more people seeking to marry.
Laws prohibiting bigamy are Constitutional because bigamy is committing fraud upon the state, something the states are at liberty to regulate, and as such religion cannot be used to 'justify' violating valid laws or challenging their constitutionality in court.
Polygamy/Bigamy...same concept...and yeah I am referring to the marriage part.
How would it be fraud against the state? If a man loves two women and they all 3 want to be married...and it's part of their religion...can a state legally deny that?
Yes.
Because there is no law in place in any of the states authorizing persons to enter into a marriage contract written to accommodate two people only, pursuant to state contract law.
Same-sex couples are eligible to enter in to a given state's marriage law – law unchanged, unaltered, and not 'redefined.'
One's rights cannot be 'violated' by being denied access to a law that doesn't exist, regardless his religious beliefs.
Last, bigamy is fraud because it violates the contract one enters into with the state, where in the context of that marriage law you're married to only one person; the fraud occurs when one lies and seeks to deceive the state when attempting to 'marry' a third person while already married to another.