Ah, "then crime of 73". This one is easy. The German empire stopped minting silver thalers, which created a price suppression on silver, and the mining industries, in the western nations. including the US. Which led to the coinage act of 1873. Which essentially moved us off silver and to an exclusive gold standard. It was the direct results of government interventions that caused this to happen. Both foreign and domestic.
I'll do the other two when i have more time. Marked for later....
I'm really trying to make sure I understand this: Moving us from a bimetallic standard to the international / worldwide gold standard (an orderly process coordinated between nations to foster trade) caused a financial panic? I'm not sure a reduction in the money supply fits the model as a cause of a depression - Under the classical model, this would simply be deflationary. It's difficult to explain how a crisis in Germany led to banks failing in the US if said banks were based on hard money.
Because the mining industry, and market participants who were unable to secure silver as a mode of exchange. It was the german empires discontinued minting of thalers, because Otto Von got a huge sum of gold from France and felt it no longer needed, led to the coinage act of 1873. That act, demonetized silver. Forcing participants into gold only. It seems fairly obvious that this would cause economic calamity.
And in 1893, the free silver campaign began. because silver was the exchange tool of the lesser fortunate class. Where goods and services were not able to procure a gold amount as a price point. There was silver. Then govt. decided silver shouldn't be a unit of exchange as legal tender. Government, not a free market place, created this depression. 1893 saw silver come back in a round about way.