Faun
Diamond Member
- Nov 14, 2011
- 126,711
- 98,396
- 3,635
His intent was to have a political rival investigated. What else could his intent have been?How is soliciting a foreign national for something of value to his own campaign not an "overt crime?"What hyperbole?Trump can shoot someone on 5th Avenue and Rrpublicans would still blindly support him. And the law in question is §30121. As far as letting the voters decide, they'll get to do that anyway. The Congress' job is to impeach upon violating the law.
Are we talking like adults or using hyperbole? You decide, Fawn.
If he committed an overt crime he would be impeached. Don't be obtuse. In this case only one side of the aisle agrees and not unilaterally. It is partisan.
Oh, and by the way, it's looking very likely like he's getting impeached.
Because you have to prove intent and there is no proof of intent. Yes, he is because it is political and in the Senate he will not get convicted. Because it is political. If it were not political it would be bi-partisan. If he "shot someone" as you alluded to then impeachment would be bi-partisan.