Also, it is an amendment. Amendments can be changed. No more prohibition or slavery in the US last time I looked.
Just because the process is set-out to amend / modify the Constitution doesn't mean the changes you want to see occur are possible.
There are huge obstacles to jump, the first and not the least is the impossibility of the math. The thought that there are 38 states that would vote to ratify a new federal amendment, is hilarious; there is no hunger for gun control in the states, quite the opposite.
There's an even bigger problem, the question if the state governments can even consider such an amendment under the powers granted to them under their own constitutions.
I know you have this denial of the principle of pre-existing / inherent rights, but under the state constitutions that principle is a structural component. State constitutions call out the inherent rights of their people as an initial act and declare those rights are forever excepted out of the powers of government and shall remain inviolate (
that's how it is worded in my state, Pennsylvania).
That is done before a single power is granted / conferred. That is a very strong statement about the relationship between rights and powers and the sovereignty of the citizen.
So, back to the question, how can a state consider a federal amendment that surrenders rights of the state's citizens to the feds, if that right is forever locked away from their consideration?
I argue that before an amendment rescinding or modifying the federal 2nd Amendment can be considered by the states, most, if not all states would each need to convene their own constitutional conventions, just to grant their government new power to allow them to give away a right that the state recognizes and promises to protect and declares forever outside of their power.
I'd be glad to hear your oppositional argument to those points . . .