Not so. There is this bugaboo about a defined territory.
Israel took control and occupied 78% of Palestine, by military force, in '47-'48. It is illegal to acquire territory through the threat or use of force. This was a process that was separate from the 1948 war.
There is no bugaboo about a defined territory. You, yourself, have proven quite satisfactorily that the territory in question (we'll call it "Palestine" for convenience sake) had a clearly defined territory. It had a clearly defined territory from 1924 with the Treaty of Lausanne, according to you.
It also had a government (supported by the British, as was their mandate), a permanent population and, at the time of declaration of independence, the ability to have relations with other states. It acquired no territory by force. It acquired sovereignty in exactly the same way Syria, Jordan, Iraq, and Lebanon acquired territory -- through treaty and other legal instruments, including your precious Treaty of Lausanne. There is no difference between the way "Palestine" was formed and the way Syria was formed. (Except, of course, no one attacked Syria).
Again, I will point out the actors who existed at the time. They were Palestine, Jordan, Egypt, Lebanon, Syria, Iraq. Every one of those actors had a defined territory. Who crossed into other's defined territories?! Who attempted to take by force what did not belong to them -- but belonged to another national entity (a full State, according to you)?! Not Palestine. Not once in 1947/48 did Palestine cross its own defined territory. The other actors entered and invaded Palestine -- a territory which was OUTSIDE of THEIR defined territory.
Palestine (renamed Israel) meets all of the criteria you provided. You have no case.
And I'm still waiting for those links I asked for. Or are you giving up on that line of reasoning?