That's where you go wrong. You have provided no support for this claim.
Pure horseshit.
Another claim with no factual basis of support.
Example time....
Domestic Private Sector + Domestic Government Sector + Foreign Sector = 0
For example, let’s say that the foreign sector (rest of the world) runs a balanced budget. In my example, for the sake of argument, it equals zero for obvious reasons. Let’s also assume the domestic private sector’s income is $200 billion while its spending is $180 billion, which give us a budget surplus of $20 billion dollars over the course of the year. By accounting identity alone, the domestic government sector will have a budget deficit equal to $20 billion dollars. The domestic private sector will accrue $20 billion in net financial wealth during the year, which will consist of $20 billion of domestic government sector liabilities.
Using another example, let’s say that the foreign sector spends less then it income, with a budget surplus of $40 billion. Simultaneously, the domestic government sector also spends less than its surplus by running a budget surplus of $20 billion. Again, by accounting identity alone, we know that the domestic private sector will have a budget deficit of $60 billion ($40 billion plus $20 billion). Its net financial wealth will have decreased by $60 billion as it issued debt and sold assets. The domestic private sector will have increased its net financial wealth by $20 billion, and the foreign sector will have increased its net financial wealth by $40 billion.
This is all very basic sectoral balances and macroaccounting. It should be abundantly clear that if one sector is going to run a suplus then another must run a defict. If we look at this in terms of stock variables, in order for one sector to accrue net financial wealth, one other sector must be in deficit by an equal amount. It’s impossible for all sectors to accrue net financial wealth by simultaneously running budget surpluses.
In actual reality, the government’s red ink is our black ink.
Only a humbug government propagandists would claim there's something called "the foreign sector" that has a budget.
The foreign sector, as in the rest of the world, which consists of foreign national governments, firms, and households.
What a real economists would say is that Americans buy products overseas and foreigners invest money in American companies. The number of dollars leaving the country has to balance the number of dollars coming into the country simply because Americans purchase foreign goods with dollars and if foreigners want to use their dollars they have to send them back to America, either by purchasing American goods or by investing them in American companies.
Meh. We're running a trade deficit. Foreigners simply desire to save in US financial assets at the end of the day. We have something called floating exchange rates, any perceived imbalances in the foreign exchange market are corrected through currency fluctuations. We utilize our domestic policy instruments, such as the FED and fiscal policy, to real are domestic policy goals since the exchange rate will correct any imbalances resulting from trade deficits, trade surpluses, etc.
I do agree with one of your statements, though. The only way for foreigners to shed their US dollar holdings is to spend them on real goods and services produced by Americans.
As for the "domestic private sector" running a "surplus." All that means is that the government borrowed money from the private sector. Of course that amount exactly equals the government's deficit. When the government spends more than it takes in, it has to borrow the difference.
The government doesn't borrow from the private sector. That doesn't make sense, I already explained it you. If the domestic private sector is surplus, those financial assets consist of liabilities of the domestic government sector.
How does this prove all private sector "investment" is the result of government debt? It doesn't. All it proves is that government debt is the result of government debt.
Deficits create net financial wealth. For example, let’s say a firm decides to spend more than its income (deficit), it can issue liabilities to finance purchases. The liabilities will accrue as net financial wealth another firm, household, or government that is accruing a budget surplus (net saving). In order for the accumulation of financial wealth to occur, we must have a firm or household will to deficit spend, and another government, household or firm willing to accrue financial wealth as liabilities of that deficit spender. It’s basically double-entry accounting at the end of the day. It’s critical to realize that the very act of deficit spending is creating net financial wealth. Unless someone is willing to deficit spend, one cannot accrue net financial wealth.
If Ford Motor Corporation issues a bond and private investors purchase those bonds, where does that show up on your "sectoral balances?" The answer is it doesn't. Apparently your "analysis" doesn't consider the bonds of Ford Motor Company to be an asset.
Well...that bond is a liability of Ford and an asset to private investors,
Sectoral balances can basically be used for macro accounting of any country. I kept it simple, since it can get more complicated, especially if a country has flows (accruing to stocks) in a foreign currency.
Within a country there can also be flows (accumulating to stocks) in a foreign currency, and there will be a macro balance equation in that currency, too. For example, firms, households, and governments can accrue financial assets denominated in multiple currencies. It can become even more tedious if one of these actors is running a deficit in one currency and a surplus in another. Either way, for every country and currency, there will be macro accounting.