Independent thinker
Diamond Member
- Oct 15, 2015
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One thing I constantly see from the left all the time seems to be their total lack of understanding that poor people commit fraud. They seem to think that only the rich commit fraud and the poor are just hungry and they are hungry because the rich have stolen the poor's wealth, even though the poor never had wealth to begin with to steal.
So, if the poor commit fraud then that is some form of restitution due them due to wealth inequality and the left justify it off one way or another or try claiming fraud isn't a large problem, no matter how big the fraud is. So, is fraud acceptable by the poor as a means of restitution due to wealth inequality, or is fraud illegal and should be prosecuted to the full extent of the law? Should fraud be means tested and only apply to the rich?
So, if the poor commit fraud then that is some form of restitution due them due to wealth inequality and the left justify it off one way or another or try claiming fraud isn't a large problem, no matter how big the fraud is. So, is fraud acceptable by the poor as a means of restitution due to wealth inequality, or is fraud illegal and should be prosecuted to the full extent of the law? Should fraud be means tested and only apply to the rich?