Why did Saddam Hussein get re-elected over and over? Why did people throughout Europe fall in line behind dictators during the interwar period? Why do you repeat logical fallacy in your spam over and over again?
What kind of revisionist buttfuckery of history is this?
Saddam got "re-elected"? He forced al-Bakr out, assumed the role of president, then had his political opponents in office executed. Then won his "show elections" by 100% of the votes. 100% turnout too. Even people in coma's voted for him. Despite Kurds in the North where his control was weaker having over 90% opposing them. But on paper, every single voting age Iraqi voted for Saddam.
And people fell in line because they didn't have a voice. When East Germany had their first open elections in 1989, how did those go?
Like the 1989 E.Germany election, we have had open elections and FDR was elected 4 times. 2 of them were among the top 7 largest margins of win ever for a US president (only Washington can claim the same).
Quit rewriting history, it makes you worthless.