"Today, a Jew from any country can move to Israel, while a Palestinian refugee, with a valid claim to property in Israel, cannot.
What's that supposed to mean? You mean some "palestinian" "refugee" (both debatable terms) has a valid claim to property in Israel that had to date back to 1948 or earlier? I would like to see that valid claim.
Secondly, every Arab who left Israel in 1948 because their Islamic leaders told them to leave so they could destroy all the Jews in the land. Well they left, but the 7 Arab nations did not accomplish their goal. And, as it were, Israel offered all of the "palestinians" to come back to their properties --- except, they wanted some type of peace agreement with Jordan, Egypt, Iraq, Syria, Lebanon, etc. None of them would offer anything of the sort --- and never have to this day! --- except for Sadat in 1978, the lone exception. So if Arafat or any Palestinian leader was willing to make peace, there would be peace. And if they had done it before the 1967 war they would have all of East Jerusalem and the West Bank and Gaza with not a Jewish settlement in sight. So obviously this hatred and attacks were never about "settlements."
I notice you had nothing to say about those "tortured Arabs" having to live under the yoke of Israeli law. I notice you do not assign any blame or responsibility to all these rich Arab nation neighbors to help out or to even allow some Palestinians to emigrate to their countries? No, of course not, only the Jews are we to hate.