Agnapostate
Rookie
- Banned
- #1
As indicated by the research of Livingston and Kahn in An American Dream Unfulfilled: The Limited Mobility of Mexican Americans:
What accounts for this decline?
(Reference to illegal immigration is absolutely pointless, incidentally; there is no homogeneity between immigrants and Mexican-Americans because the greater human capital gains of increased schooling and training increase the mobility of the latter within American labor markets. So those who wished to attack immigrants by claiming that the influx of cheap labor supply is problematic for legal Mexican-Americans will have to look elsewhere. This should have been indicated by the abstract excerpt, of course, but some are relentless in their pursuit of inaccuracy.)
Immigrant men and women report lower wages than their second and thirdgeneration counterparts, but once human capital controls are added, the wage pattern becomes one of steady decline across generations for men, and stagnation or marginal decline across generations for women.
What accounts for this decline?
(Reference to illegal immigration is absolutely pointless, incidentally; there is no homogeneity between immigrants and Mexican-Americans because the greater human capital gains of increased schooling and training increase the mobility of the latter within American labor markets. So those who wished to attack immigrants by claiming that the influx of cheap labor supply is problematic for legal Mexican-Americans will have to look elsewhere. This should have been indicated by the abstract excerpt, of course, but some are relentless in their pursuit of inaccuracy.)
Last edited: