The Court didn't have before it and the logic of the opinion does not decide whether the historic and essential authority to define the marital relation of each state may continue..eh? [interesting choice of words in that "definitive" sentence..lol.]
Correct. United States v. Windsor was about Federal recognition of legally valid Civil Marriages entered into under State law and the Federal government discriminating by recognizing some, but not others for no compelling government interest.
So then why did they say that each state has the "unquestioned authority" to decide marriage?
Again you are taking snippets out of context. They never said that states had "unquestioned authority" regarding marriage in the context your are trying to make it seem like (see next quote for context). As a matter of fact they said:
Marriage was: "Subject to certain constitutional guarantees, see, e.g.,
Loving v. Virginia, 388 U. S. 1, “regulation of domestic relations” is “an area that has
long been regarded as a virtually exclusive province of the States,” Sosna v. Iowa, 419
U. S. 393, 404. "
State regulation of Civil Marriage is subject to "constitutional guarantees". They didn't say that states have "unquestioned authority" to decide marriage. As in denying Civil Marriage based on race, we know they don't. The question remains open as to whether they can deny it based on gender as the DOMA decision doesn't address that question.
"DOMA’s avowed purpose and practical effect are to impose a
disadvantage, a separate status, and so a stigma upon all who enter
into same-sex marriages made lawful by the unquestioned authority
of the States."
The fact that States can say "Yes" to Same-sex Civil Marriage is unquestioned. You aren't trying to say that States "don't" have the authority to extend Civil Marriage to same-sex couples are your? I hope not.
To cite and then uphold Loving as applied to LGBT marriage at a later date?
They cited Loving in one place in the whole decision, that was to show that State regulation of Civil Marriage is "Subject to certain
constitutional guarantees". They did not cite Loving as a justification for overturning Section 3 of DOMA.
Although you can bet that they will address Loving in the Utah case if they (a) the case gets that far, and (b) if they grant certiorari to review an appeal. (Really I don't know how they would dodge it this time as there is not likely to be a "standing" issue.)
And if that is the case, will the Court, in your opinion, weigh any other potentials that might easily and logically use the "LGBT' or SSM standard of "consensting...in love" to anticipate near-future appeals from polygamists or others?
The "LGBT" standard, from a legal perspective is not "consenting...in love" that is a standard used by heterosexuals and homosexuals alike to decide to Civilly Marry but IT IS NOT a standard from a legal perspective.
The standard from a legal perspective is the comparison of like situated individuals/groups being targeted for different treatment under the law and whether there is a compelling government interest for such different treatment. In this situation the like situated groups are law abiding, tax paying, US Citizen, infertile, consenting adults in different sex relationships that are allowed to enter into Civil Marriage (in all States) and law abiding, tax paying, US Citizen, infertile, consenting adults in sex relationships that are not allowed to enter into Civil Marriage (in most States).
Polygamists will have to make their own arguments on the unconstitutionality of denying their religious beliefs - comparing polygamists to two consenting adults is an apple to oranges comparison and is used mostly as a slippery slope fallacy and for fear mongering.
Remember while you're pondering, that Utah in order to gain statehood had to sign a treaty with the US Government to make and keep polygamy illegal within its boundaries...
States or Territories don't have "treaties" with the United States government as they are already subordinate to the US government.
Now, as a condition of admitting Utah to the Union in 1896 after the citizens of the Territory applied for Statehood, the Congress required that an anti-polygamy clause be included, but it was not a "treaty" it was a more a condition of passage of the Bill of Admittance.
But so?
Alabama had provisions in it's State Constitution (and so did other States) barring interracial marriage, after the Loving decision those clauses in those State Constitutions were void - which of course just goes to show that States don't have "unquestioned authority" in the context you were attempting. State laws are still subject to Constitutional guarantees.
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