I know it sounds weird but i just found this
European scholarship in Sanskrit, begun by Heinrich Roth (16201668) and Johann Ernst Hanxleden (16811731), is regarded as responsible for the discovery of the Indo-European language family by Sir William Jones. This scholarship played an important role in the development of Western philology, or historical linguistics.[citation needed]
Sir William Jones, speaking to the Asiatic Society in Calcutta (now Kolkata) on February 2, 1786, said:
The Sanskrit language, whatever be its antiquity, is of a wonderful structure; more perfect than the Greek, more copious than the Latin, and more exquisitely refined than either, yet bearing to both of them a stronger affinity, both in the roots of verbs and in the forms of grammar, than could possibly have been produced by accident; so strong, indeed, that no philologer could examine them all three, without believing them to have sprung from some common source, which, perhaps, no longer exists.
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1.This would mean there was a race of people originally proto-indoeuropean and expanding their language and culture
2.If so than those people must have been european because sanskrit is so "wonderful", it was invented by europeans...
So the ideao that its a conspiracy against indian civilization poped up in my mind, i mean indians never pushed on europeans that they are indians but europeans pushed it on indians that they were europeans once and their culture derrived from the europeans
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do i sound crazy?
European scholarship in Sanskrit, begun by Heinrich Roth (16201668) and Johann Ernst Hanxleden (16811731), is regarded as responsible for the discovery of the Indo-European language family by Sir William Jones. This scholarship played an important role in the development of Western philology, or historical linguistics.[citation needed]
Sir William Jones, speaking to the Asiatic Society in Calcutta (now Kolkata) on February 2, 1786, said:
The Sanskrit language, whatever be its antiquity, is of a wonderful structure; more perfect than the Greek, more copious than the Latin, and more exquisitely refined than either, yet bearing to both of them a stronger affinity, both in the roots of verbs and in the forms of grammar, than could possibly have been produced by accident; so strong, indeed, that no philologer could examine them all three, without believing them to have sprung from some common source, which, perhaps, no longer exists.
--------
1.This would mean there was a race of people originally proto-indoeuropean and expanding their language and culture
2.If so than those people must have been european because sanskrit is so "wonderful", it was invented by europeans...
So the ideao that its a conspiracy against indian civilization poped up in my mind, i mean indians never pushed on europeans that they are indians but europeans pushed it on indians that they were europeans once and their culture derrived from the europeans
---
do i sound crazy?
