Well you see, I would say that making laws against drugs is unconstitutional.
How about murder?
Murder would violate the rights of the person being murdered. The sale or use of drugs does not violate anybody's rights.
Really? The sale or use of drugs that are dangerous, addictive, and potentially deadly does not violate that unalienable right that attach to the murder victim? Why isn't the drug user a victim? Why is what Bernie Madoff did illegal? The drug user and the Madoff victim both bought their product willingly. Why is one a victim and one not?