The Palestinians were not a party to the 1948 war even though virtually all of the fighting was inside Palestine.P F Tinmore, et al,
Think about it for a minute and ask the tough question.
(COMMENT)P F Tinmore, et al,
What kind of confusion are you attempting to lay down here?
(COMMENT)I wasn't talking about the 1967 war.P F Tinmore, et al,
Again, you're just kidding --- right?
(COMMENT)
Actually, that is not at all correct. It is wrong on several levels. So I'll answer on the two most common Arab Palestinian arguments used.
In the case of the West Bank, the Arab Legion (Jordanian Army), fired first when Jordanian forces penetrated and took control of Government House, HQ UN observers, Jerusalem.
In the case of the Gaza Strip, the Egyptian Military cut off the Israelis from using the Titan Straits, and then pushed the UN Peace Keepers out of the way, moving 100,000 troops, 900 Tanks and 800 Artillery Pieces forward.
Nothing in Chapter I, Article 2(4) negated the right of self-defense against an offensive aggressor. You will find that in Chapter VII, Article 51.
The authors of 242 had something altogether different in mind than how the Hostile Arab Palestinians interpret it (as previously explained). And resolution 681 was written in 1990; after the Treaty with Egypt.
Remember, that there are treaties with Egypt (1979) and Jordan (1994) which totally, 100% --- resolved any question pertaining to the Israeli occupation of Egyptian controlled Gaza Strip or the Jordanian controlled West Bank (until abandon in 1988 to Israeli control). International Boundaries were resolved and delineated.
Most Respectfully,
R
Relative to the West Bank and the Gaza Strip, the War which started in 1948, was resolved by Treaty [Egypt (1979) and Jordan (1994)].
If you think there is a factual mistake here on when and where the discussion is pertaining to --- don't be a smart ass. Say what you mean! In this case, no matter what you mean, any complaint relative to the West Bank and Gaza Strip is wrong --- if you are addressing a complaint in real-time. The Palestinians were not the plaintiffs. They were not parties to the Armistice Arrangements --- and were not party to the treaties.
So, state your objection completely or stay at home.
If you have an argument to be made as to why the Palestinians refused to make peace, then state it. But remember where the International Boundaries are by treaty (without prejudice to the Palestinians).
Most Respectfully,
RRelative to the West Bank and the Gaza Strip, the War which started in 1948, was resolved by Treaty [Egypt (1979) and Jordan (1994)].
The Palestinians were not the plaintiffs. They were not parties to the Armistice Arrangements --- and were not party to the treaties.
Indeed.
If the conflict was resolved by treaty between the parties involved, then how is it that the Palestinians have any complaint?
••• The Egyptian Treaty left the Gaza Strip in the effective control of the Israelis even before a Palestinian Government was established. (And don't use the All Palestinian Government as an excuse. The Egyptians dissolved the APG in 1959; well before the Egyptians abandon the Gaza Strip to Israeli control.)
••• The The Jordanians abandon the West Bank into Israeli Control in August 1988 (two weeks before the HAMAS Charter was ratified) and several months before the PLO Declaration of Independence.
So the realistic question is: Who has cause for complaint with whom?
When the West Bank was abandon by the Jordanians on 31 July 1988 (HM the King cut all ties), WHAT COUTRY had control of that territory?
• There mere act of discovery by one state is not enough to confer a title by occupation. There are two requirements:
(i) the territory subject to claim must not be under the sovereignty of nay state (terra nullius) --- that is --- used in international law to describe territory which has expressly or implicitly relinquished sovereignty.
Jordan to Cut Key Ties to West Bank : Acts at Request of PLO, Hussein Says, in Attempt to Boost Palestinian Cause(ii) the state must have effectively occupied the territory.
August 01, 1988|MICHAEL ROSS | Times Staff Writer
AMMAN, Jordan — King Hussein said Sunday that he accepts Jordan's separation from the West Bank of the Jordan River and is dismantling his kingdom's "legal and administrative links" to the Israeli-occupied territory at the request of the Palestine Liberation Organization.
In a carefully crafted speech one day after he dissolved the lower house of Parliament, the Jordanian monarch indicated that he was bowing to Arab and, in particular, to PLO pressure to follow a course that Jordan--he implied--does not necessarily believe to be in the Palestinians' best interests.
However, he said, "we respect the wish of the PLO, the sole legitimate representative of the Palestinian people, to secede from us in an independent Palestinian state."
You asked this before; and the answer has not changed. . And this should be noted that it is not the same thing as taken by force or through the use of force. this is not the same thing as Acquisition by conquest or use of force.
Most Respectfully,
R
A UN Security Council Resolution called for an end to the fighting and an armistice.
The UN armistice agreements divided Palestine into three areas of occupation without a word from the UNPC who were supposed the be the trustee. Occupations do not confer sovereignty. The land remained Palestinian.
It is illegal to annex occupied territory. The land remained Palestinian.
Because they did not exist as such, but the people who were to later become the Palestinians did fight in that war. You mean the Mandate of Palestine as your link states ( the one you use to try and show that Palestine was a nation in 1923 )
Twice as the arab muslims broke the first cease fire, and it was to protect the lives of the arab muslims that the UN did so
The original partition plan had it as 3 separate entities, and because the arab muslims refused to abide by the UN recommendations they lost any hope of holding all the land. Yes it was still mandate of Palestine land, and still is to this day as the arab muslims are refusing to give up their jizya.
Link to the law that says this ?