Youwerecreated
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- Nov 29, 2010
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John the Apostle, son of Zebadee almost certainly did not write 1 John...he was illiterate. Even Acts says so. Additionally, borrowing descriptions from previous authors was very common. For example (and I will get into more detail later) John of Patmos' description of the throne room that God sits upon is almost an exact description as in Ezekiel (at least at first and the John expands on it).
Additionally the style of Greek used in the Apocalypse is totally and completely different than in 1 John or the Gospel of John.
Your argument is terribly lacking
The John of Acts was a different John named John Mark
When [Peter] realized this, he went to the house of Mary, the mother of John whose other name was Mark, where many were gathered together and were praying.[Acts 12:12]
And Barnabas and Saul returned from Jerusalem when they had fulfilled their mission, bringing with them John whose other name was Mark.[Acts 12:25]
When they arrived at Salamis, they proclaimed the word of God in the synagogues of the Jews. And they had John to assist them.[Acts 13:5]
Now Paul and his company set sail from Paphos, and came to Perga in Pamphylia. And John left them and returned to Jerusalem; but they passed on from Perga and came to Antioch of Pisidia.[Acts 13:1314]
And Barnabas wanted to take with them John called Mark. But Paul thought best not to take with them one who had withdrawn from them in Pamphylia, and had not gone with them to the work. And there arose a sharp contention, so that they separated from each other; Barnabas took Mark with him and sailed away to Cyprus, but Paul chose Silas and departed, being commended by the brethren to the grace of the Lord.[Acts 15:3740
John of Patmos also known as John the Apostle wrote Revelation.
He was well educated.
You are referring to much later in the book where other things are going on. The author identified John Mark to distinguish between that John and the Apostle John referred to in Acts 4 where it is written (Acts 4:13) that "...Peter and John...were unlearned and ignorant men...."
Your claim that John was well educated is not only absurd according to the state of education at the time and John's status as a peasant, but it's directly refuted by the Bible. As I pointed out before the Greek word used in Acts 4:13 was "agrammatoi"..."unlettered, illiterate, uneducated".
If the Bible is inerrant why is everyone claiming that John was literate when the Bible itself says he was not?
It was not the words of God that claimed John was uneducated,it was enemies of Christ. Besides if you doubt the creator created all things why would you believe that he could inspire his words to be written by men that did not possess the best of educations ?
All scripture was inspired by God and we take that on faith correct ? if we are true believers that is.