One of the story lines last night in the Shonda Rhimes shit-fest called "Graze Anatomy" was a married woman who is having a long term "love affair" with another woman, and whose husband is oblivious, thinking that their marriage is going fine. In fine Shonda Rhimes fashion, she reveals the shenanigans to her husband, by screaming the sordid details at the top of her lungs in a crowded Emergency Room (or comparable - it's not clear exactly where they are). He, of course is stunned, and in true Shonda Rhimes fashion, eventually comes to understand that it is his fault. Right.
As is expected while watching such an episode, one considers how one would behave in a similar situation. While I'm not a normal human when it comes to sexual matters, such a revelation by my wife (30 years ago), wouldn't have bothered me in the least. If she wants to masturbate with another woman to fulfill her sexual "needs," (but is still sleeping with me), it wouldn't bother me at all. Knock yourself out. A man would be a different story altogether.
But another thought occurred to me...a question actually? Is this "adultery"?
Adultery is a Big Banana in Western Civilization. It has historically been unquestioned grounds for a "fault" divorce, it is specifically called out as prohibited under the Ten Commandments, and even the late JC was heard to imply that ending a marriage due to adultery was kind of OK.
But again, Is this adultery? The classic definition of Adultery is pretty much as follows: "Voluntary sexual intercourse between a married person and a person who is not his or her spouse."
It is not possible for people of the same gender to have sexual intercourse unless you expand the definition of "sexual intercourse" to something that it has never meant before*. When homosexuals "have sex" they are merely masturbating - sometimes mutually, but usually gratifying each other individually.
There is no question that such activity is sinful under traditional Judeo-Christian tenets, but so is masturbation. What difference does it make if you are masturbating with another person?
The hypothetical question is: If a spouse finds out that her partner is having a homosexual relationship with someone else, and they live in a state where "fault" divorce gives the complaining spouse a significant advantage, can the aggrieved spouse demand a "fault" divorce for cause?
_____________________
* President Clinton's "defense" to the charge that he lied when he said that "he did not have sex with that woman," was that getting a BJ is not "having sex," a point with which I agree.
As is expected while watching such an episode, one considers how one would behave in a similar situation. While I'm not a normal human when it comes to sexual matters, such a revelation by my wife (30 years ago), wouldn't have bothered me in the least. If she wants to masturbate with another woman to fulfill her sexual "needs," (but is still sleeping with me), it wouldn't bother me at all. Knock yourself out. A man would be a different story altogether.
But another thought occurred to me...a question actually? Is this "adultery"?
Adultery is a Big Banana in Western Civilization. It has historically been unquestioned grounds for a "fault" divorce, it is specifically called out as prohibited under the Ten Commandments, and even the late JC was heard to imply that ending a marriage due to adultery was kind of OK.
But again, Is this adultery? The classic definition of Adultery is pretty much as follows: "Voluntary sexual intercourse between a married person and a person who is not his or her spouse."
It is not possible for people of the same gender to have sexual intercourse unless you expand the definition of "sexual intercourse" to something that it has never meant before*. When homosexuals "have sex" they are merely masturbating - sometimes mutually, but usually gratifying each other individually.
There is no question that such activity is sinful under traditional Judeo-Christian tenets, but so is masturbation. What difference does it make if you are masturbating with another person?
The hypothetical question is: If a spouse finds out that her partner is having a homosexual relationship with someone else, and they live in a state where "fault" divorce gives the complaining spouse a significant advantage, can the aggrieved spouse demand a "fault" divorce for cause?
_____________________
* President Clinton's "defense" to the charge that he lied when he said that "he did not have sex with that woman," was that getting a BJ is not "having sex," a point with which I agree.
