Did Israel steal Palestinian Land , pre 1948?

Yarddog

Diamond Member
Jun 13, 2014
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Asking for input on this, though I have my own opinion which is NO. Purpose of this is to answer this constant drumbeat from Hamas Supporters and Leftists/ Liberals throughout the country and even on this site who keep claiming Israel is some colonizer and needs to be erased.

As I see it, Prior to 1948, under the guidance of the League of Nations (which was a consensus ..Liberals you should love that) They began to purchase vacant land from owners of that land and actually developed it. The populations of Jews and Arabs then grew together before the 1948 war where Israel was justified in expelling Arabs .
Bottom line is, there was no land stolen from Arabs, land was won during a defensive war, and people who were a clear threat were expelled.
 
This is the visa card of a jew who entered Palestine in 1935.
The Palestinian government wrote on it in three languages:
He is authorized to remain in Palestine as a refugee under the refugee laws of 1933.
As a result, the refugees got a little cocky and became masters.
F-U-VNtXgAA0brc
 
This is the visa card of a jew who entered Palestine in 1935.
The Palestinian government wrote on it in three languages:
He is authorized to remain in Palestine as a refugee under the refugee laws of 1933.
As a result, the refugees got a little cocky and became masters.
F-U-VNtXgAA0brc

Palestine became a country called Israel.
 
Asking for input on this, though I have my own opinion which is NO. Purpose of this is to answer this constant drumbeat from Hamas Supporters and Leftists/ Liberals throughout the country and even on this site who keep claiming Israel is some colonizer and needs to be erased.

As I see it, Prior to 1948, under the guidance of the League of Nations (which was a consensus ..Liberals you should love that) They began to purchase vacant land from owners of that land and actually developed it. The populations of Jews and Arabs then grew together before the 1948 war where Israel was justified in expelling Arabs .
Bottom line is, there was no land stolen from Arabs, land was won during a defensive war, and people who were a clear threat were expelled.
That's why we shouldn't be selling our land to the Chinese or any other foreigner.
You cannot do that in any other developed country.
The Japanese used to buy up tons of land in Hawaii.
Now China is a threat.
 
Asking for input on this, though I have my own opinion which is NO. Purpose of this is to answer this constant drumbeat from Hamas Supporters and Leftists/ Liberals throughout the country and even on this site who keep claiming Israel is some colonizer and needs to be erased.
Obviously, the Jewish people are not colonizers. They are indigenous. Israel is their homeland.
As I see it, Prior to 1948, under the guidance of the League of Nations (which was a consensus ..Liberals you should love that) They began to purchase vacant land from owners of that land and actually developed it.
Yes. But be careful of the argument of property purchase. Private land ownership /= sovereignty or national self-determination or entitlement/disenfranchisement of a State. The land ownership and land use laws of the Ottoman Empire are extremely complex and the worldview of Arab land use is markedly different from how we understand private property ownership from the "Western" point of view.
The populations of Jews and Arabs then grew together before the 1948 war where Israel was justified in expelling Arabs .
I disagree that Israel was justified in expelling Arabs for being Arabs. That said, it was a war zone, with intense fighting, and the local population is very likely to be uprooted under those conditions. It is an unfortunate part of war. And I think Arabs were justified in removing its population from war zones and areas of active fighting. And I think population exchanges were a difficult, but necessary, even advantageous and ethical, way to create enough ethnic cohesion to make several new States viable.
Bottom line is, there was no land stolen from Arabs, land was won during a defensive war, and people who were a clear threat were expelled.
The territory which came under the sovereignty of the State of Israel was not won in a defensive war. It was created from the Mandate in exactly the same way that all the other States were created at the dissolution of the Ottoman Empire. It was a legal process. The borders were established in that legal process. Any aggression that occurred against Israel does not change those legal borders. And those legal borders are confirmed in peace treaties, which are always the final arbiter of conflicts between States.
 
Asking for input on this, though I have my own opinion which is NO. Purpose of this is to answer this constant drumbeat from Hamas Supporters and Leftists/ Liberals throughout the country and even on this site who keep claiming Israel is some colonizer and needs to be erased.

As I see it, Prior to 1948, under the guidance of the League of Nations (which was a consensus ..Liberals you should love that) They began to purchase vacant land from owners of that land and actually developed it. The populations of Jews and Arabs then grew together before the 1948 war where Israel was justified in expelling Arabs .
Bottom line is, there was no land stolen from Arabs, land was won during a defensive war, and people who were a clear threat were expelled.
Did Israel Evict The Palestinians? Arab sources say NO

REPOST-Did Israel Evict the Palestinians?
 
So sorry about the Palestinians. Another more advanced civilization came for their land and they gave it up willingly for money and booze and a few mules. Too bad Israel is a country that doesn't respond to cry baby so called Palestinians wanting their land back.
 
Yes. But be careful of the argument of property purchase. Private land ownership /= sovereignty or national self-determination or entitlement/disenfranchisement of a State. The land ownership and land use laws of the Ottoman Empire are extremely complex and the worldview of Arab land use is markedly different from how we understand private property ownership from the "Western" point of view.
Indeed, they were working with two different systems. The "western" system was land ownership with deeds. This was a foreign concept to the locals. The locals had a land rights system. If you have always been there you had the "right" to be there. I must note that virtually all of Palestine's cities, towns, and villages predate the Ottoman Empire. One must ask who "owned" the land back then?

In the middle of the 19th century the Ottomans adopted the land ownership system. Few of the locals knew about it or understood it. Some of the "connected," with knowledge of the system, registered entire villages in their name.

When the Zionists offered them cash, they took it. The Palestinians, who had lived there for hundreds of years, got the boot.
 

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