It just occurred to me that the ACA was passed on the basis of a CBO estimate that there would be NO net cost over the first ten years of that bill. So I would like to ask: Why is there any issue about (de)funding Obamacare, since it was promised to pay for itself?
Could it be that the entire legislative process used to pass this bill was a fraud upon the American people? Could it be that the CBO estimate of its cost was perverted by balancing TEN years of revenue against only FIVE years of expenditures? Could it be that the Senate disenfranchised the people of Massachusetts by forcing a vote before their newly elected Senator could be sworn in? Could it be that the President has illegally amended this law by executive fiat?
By what strange twist of logic is the House of Representatives obligated to fund this unconstitutional fiasco?
Could it be that the entire legislative process used to pass this bill was a fraud upon the American people? Could it be that the CBO estimate of its cost was perverted by balancing TEN years of revenue against only FIVE years of expenditures? Could it be that the Senate disenfranchised the people of Massachusetts by forcing a vote before their newly elected Senator could be sworn in? Could it be that the President has illegally amended this law by executive fiat?
By what strange twist of logic is the House of Representatives obligated to fund this unconstitutional fiasco?