georgephillip
Diamond Member
- Thread starter
- #61
Stealing someones share of productivity gains is not stealing their productivity.Let me count the ways.Please explain how the elite are getting wealthy "at the expense of the vast majority"?
What exactly did this rich people take from us? What did they take from you?
Outsourcing millions of middle class jobs to slave-wage states like RedChina, Inc.
Bribing Republicans AND Democrats to shift the burden of taxation off unearned income.
Bribing the same politicians to engage in (at least) two unnecessary wars...
"What exactly did the rich people take from us?"
Virtually all of the productivity gains the US economy has seen since 1970.
The rich have stolen enough of those collective gains to produce a state where one in seven Americans and 25% of US children now live in poverty. They've stolen enough money so that the current annual average family income for the bottom 90% of Americans is $31,244, while the average income of the top 0.01 is over $27 million.
"What did they take from you"?
My share of productivity gains, for starters.
Since I earned less during my working years, my current SSA benefit is significantly less than it would have been had US workers shared in rising GDP at the same levels they did decades ago.
Many of the rich don't earn their money.
They bribe politicians to steal it.
What utter bullshit. How exactly can a business steal your productivity? I can tell you someone that CAN steal your productivity, though, THE GOVERNMENT, through labor regulations. How can someone else make you unable to produce as much as you did before? Corporate American hasn't outsourced jobs due to cheap labor. They outsource it because it was YOU, the laborer that became less productive. It isn't about how cheap you are labor wise. It's about how much value you produce. If someone overseas can be paid $5/hr and can produce $10 worth of goods vs. an american that has to be paid $10/hr, but can produce $20 worth of goods, whom am I going to hire?
All you lefties think this gap is tied to corporate greed somehow, but can't fathom for a second that a government that increasingly provides for people what they used to provide for themselves, might have something to do with the problem.
Compare this country with Germany since the mid 1970s.
The richest 1% of Germans earned 11% of their nation's total income in the 70s and they earn the same percentage today.
The richest 1% in the US earned around 8% of total income in the 70s and earn over 20% today.
If you would, provide a few more details as to why you would hire overseas labor at 5$ an hour to produce $10 worth of goods vs an American earning $10 an hour ($20,000/year) who produces $20 worth of goods?
Some of you righties can't comprehend the simple fact that a government that was answerable to all its citizens would not need to provide people with "what they used to provide for themselves."