Dragon
Senior Member
- Sep 16, 2011
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So your answer to the question in my previous post would be yes?
It was an absurd hypothetical, as no court would ever rule that those accused of murder are not entitled to a trial, but if one did, that would not be an "unconstitutional" ruling. It would be a bad ruling, a stupid ruling, and a certain-to-be-overturned ruling, but an unconstitutional court ruling is an oxymoron. Only laws can be unconstitutional, not court rulings.