Except states legislated the popular vote in each state to choose the electors.No. The ONLY qualification criteria that exist are the ones that are in the US constitution. Like I said, there's no need for any state to hold an election in the first place.
But one thing has occurred to me. This isn't even the general election, this about a Primary. Primaries are strictly actions by political parties. So really, it's all the more reason for the courts not to be involved.
If they want to go back to not using the popular vote, they need to legislate it.