The Zionists said it was colonization. The British said it was colonization. They both had colonial offices to implement their plan. Historians say it is colonization. The Palestinians, and others, call it colonialism. The facts on the ground call it colonialism.P F Tinmore, et al,
Yeah, I saw that. It is a problem using Wikipedia as the source source on a legal interpretation of intent. This is a continuation of the diversion.
(COMMENT)
Settler colonialism
is a form of colonial formation whereby foreign people move into a region. An imperial power oversees the immigration of these settlers who consent, often only temporarily, to government by that authority. This colonization sometimes leads, by a variety of means, to depopulation of the previous inhabitants, and the settlers take over the land left vacant by the previous residents. Unlike other forms of colonialism, the "colonizing authority" (the imperial power) is not always the same nationality as the "colonizing workforce" (the settlers) in cases of settler colonialism. The settlers are, however, generally viewed by the colonizing authority as racially superior to the previous inhabitants, giving their social movements and political demands greater legitimacy than those of colonized peoples in the eyes of the home government.
The land is the key resource in settler colonies, whereas natural (e.g. gold, cotton, oil) and human (e.g. labor, existing trade networks, convertible souls) resources are the main motivation behind other forms of colonialism. Normal colonialism typically ends, whereas settler colonialism lasts indefinitely, except in the rare event of complete evacuation (e.g., the Lost Colony of Roanoke) or settler decolonization. The historian of race and settler colonialism Patrick Wolfe writes that "settler colonialism destroys to replace" and insists that "invasion", in settler colonial contexts, is "a structure, not an event".
Settler colonialism - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
Of course this is what we have witnessed during the so called mandate period and continues through today with the colonial expansion in the West Bank. Remember, both the Zionists and the British spoke openly about their colonial project. It was not until about 1960 when colonialism was getting a bad rap that the narrative was changed to self determination. Of course there is nothing about colonialism having the right to self determination but it is hawked regularly like it was true.
The Lost Colony of Roanoke, as an example, was a colonial expedition, under the authority of the British Sovereign, to extend sovereignty under the rule of "Discovery." It is a form of "Occupation."
Occupation was often preceded by discovery that is the realization of the existence of a particular piece of land. In the early period of European discovery, in the Fifteenth and Sixteenth Centuries, the mere realization or sighting was sufficient to constitute title to territory. As time passed, something more was required and this took the form of symbolic act of taking possession, whether by raising of flags or by formal declarations. By the Eighteenth Century, the effective control came to be required together with discovery to constitute title to territory.[17]
The entire body of the League of Nations (The Council) understood that there was no "Colonial" intent in the establishment of Mandate control. There was a direct intent, plainly understood, that the Allied Powers would be instrumental in the establishment of a Jewish National Home (JNH) and that the Allied Powers would facilitate immigration in favor of that decision; with the JNH to be a carve-out from holdings under Enemy Occupied Territory Administration; --- from which the Allied Powers were successors to all Titles and Rights.
The constant attempt by the belligerent and Hostile Arab Palestinians (HoAP) --- for the last century --- to undermine that intention and convince people otherwise, is merely an attempt to secure territory by force for which the occupied enemy inhabitants were refused to participate in the Article 22 Tutelage or to accomplish those set preparatory to independence in the same fashion as the Jewish Community and the Jordanian Community.
(COMMENT)Remember, both the Zionists and the British spoke openly about their colonial project. It was not until about 1960 when colonialism was getting a bad rap that the narrative was changed to self determination. Of course there is nothing about colonialism having the right to self determination but it is hawked regularly like it was true.
I don't want to give a lecture on the displacement of Colonialism; but let's just say that when the UN Charter was written, colonialism was on its last leg. Again, none of this is important to the resolution of the dispute between the failing State of Palestine (the Arab State in A/RES/181) and the thriving State of Israel (the Jewish State in A/RES/181).
There is NO --- repeat "NO" --- territory for which the UN Implementation of the Declaration on the Granting of Independence of Colonial Countries and Peoples (General Assembly Resolution 1514 (XV) of 14 December 1960) applies. For all that has been written on this very issue, the HoAP constantly argue this ridiculous position that a Colonial Power introduced the immigration to expand colonial power. This was 100% wrong. While the British maintained a colonial power at that time, the intent had been to establish the JNH. In these contemporary times, there are no "Non-Self-Governing Territories" anywhere in the Middle East, including Palestine.
As for expanding into the West Bank and Gaza Strip, --- at the time the Israeli occupied these areas, NEITHER were under the sovereignty or control of the Palestinians. As explained previously (Posting #506 - Lest We Forget) at different times the relationships were different do to the shift in the political situation.
As for this allegation that: "there is nothing about colonialism having the right to self determination but it is hawked regularly like it was true." This is simply twisting the facts. When the HoAP find it convenient, they cry foul and argue they have this "universal and inalienable rights." But when it is inconvenient, they attempt to twist the facts such that they can argue Israel has no right to self-determination (that would mean that it is not universal and not inalienable). This vassilation between two concepts is a symptom of a politically psychopathic dissociative identity disorder (Palestinians will shift to any position or any identity as long as they can continue the jihad and insurgency).
Remember, Israel never occupied HoAP Territory. The failing State of Palestine materialized inside of "Dependent Territory" on Israel (later shifting to a more "Protectorate" type status), as an unchallenged right to self-determination.
Most Respectfully,
R
Here is what the UN says:
3. Reaffirms the inalienable right of the Namibian people, the
Palestinian people and all peoples under foreign and colonial domination to self-determination, national independence, territorial integrity, national
unity and sovereignty without outside interference;
A/RES/37/43. Importance of the universal realization of the right of peoples to self-determination and of the speedy granting of independence to colonial countries and peoples for the effective guarantee and observance of human rights
And you say it isn't.
THAT IS CORRECT IT ISNT, AND NO MANNER OF TWISTING AND MANIPULATING RESOLUTIONS WILL CHANGE THE TRUTH. WHO HAS DENIED THE ARAB MUSLIMS CALLING THEMSELVES PALESTINIANS FROM EXERCISING THEIR RIGHT TO SELF DETERMINATION, NATIONAL INDEPENDENCE, TERRITORIAL INTEGRITY, NATIONAL UNITY AND SOVERIEGNTY OTHER THAN THEMSELVES. POINT TO ONE ACTION BY ISRAEL THAT HAS BREACHED ANY OF THESE RIGHTS THAT WAS NOT LEGALLY JUSTIFIED AS A MEANS OF DEFENCE AGAINST TERRORISM AND VIOLENCE