Diuretic
Permanently confused
Recently we had a Supreme Court Justice cite Foreign law as a reason for ( I believe he was in opposition to the majority) his opposition to a ruling by that Court. And I believe that at least once a Supreme Court Decision alluded to foreign laws as a basis for some decision. This is WRONG. The Court has only the power granted it by the Constitution and that specifically STATES where they decide issues from.
Then there's no need to amend the Constitution is there? And this thread is a figment of my imagination.
RetiredGySgt: said:Once again the process for bringing in Foreign law is through treaty ( making it binding legal law for the Country) or through acts of the Legislature.
You're ahead of us. We can ignore treaties if we wish. It's wrong but it's a fact - *sigh*.
RetiredGySgt: said:As for Corporate law... Want to do business in our Country? Follow our laws. Want to be a US Corporation? Follow our laws no matter where you do business.
Sure thing, no problem, but what about where a corporation here is doing its business and the US govt tries to reach in because some corporate interest in the US is being adversely affected?