Delta4Embassy
Gold Member
Okay I'm not a political science major so there are many things I don't understand about government. But can somoene explain to me why we have state laws and federal laws about the same thing when federal law automatically superceeds a state's?
Age of consent for example. Federal aoc is 18 and seems to apply to US citizens travelling abroad, and on federal jurisdictions (Indian reservations, federal property, etc.) Then the states have their own version applying to just their own state's borders. But if a citizen in a state lower than 18 has a sexual encounter in a federal jurisdiction, the state law is nullified, and the federal law takes over. But what's the point of that? Is there some actual need to have 51 ways of doing the same thing?
Age of consent for example. Federal aoc is 18 and seems to apply to US citizens travelling abroad, and on federal jurisdictions (Indian reservations, federal property, etc.) Then the states have their own version applying to just their own state's borders. But if a citizen in a state lower than 18 has a sexual encounter in a federal jurisdiction, the state law is nullified, and the federal law takes over. But what's the point of that? Is there some actual need to have 51 ways of doing the same thing?
