Was the Nashville shooting a hate crime?

Any bets we'll see Audry's manifesto?
I forget, but someone already posted an image of it. It is pretty fucked up. Whether or not it was hers, I'm not sure it was confirmed, but it reads like it was probably hers. I'll see if I can find it

Here we go. Again not sure if this is legit:
 
I forget, but someone already posted an image of it. It is pretty fucked up. Whether or not it was hers, I'm not sure it was confirmed, but it reads like it was probably hers. I'll see if I can find it

Here we go. Again not sure if this is legit:
I think this is it, copied from your link, thx.

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Our great founders were referring to We The Armed People as that well regulated militia, they wanted you to be armed to prevent a government from turning tyrannical.
A "militia" is comprised of civilians whom are NOT under the command of government. We all learned that by third grade...you didn't?
The founders intent is made crystal clear by the third and fourth phrase.
“the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed.”

Let me know what else you’d like me to teach you?
There's one hugs problem with your argument:

That's not what they founding fathers wrote in the Constitution!

Can you find the phrase "We The Armed People" in the Constitution?

The 2nd amendment doesn't say that any group of people can form a militia. It says a "Well-Regulated Militia". Given that the Constitution also says that any powers not given to the federal government are invested in the states, it's clear that they meant that the states regulate the "Well-Regulated Militia". So the only valid Militias are State Militias.

It's interesting that you have to butcher the 2nd amendment in order to make your case. The Constitution does not say:

“The right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed.”

The Founding fathers certainly could have made that statement as a separate sentence, but they didn't.

What the 2nd amendment does say is:

"A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed."

All ONE sentence all all parts referring to "A well regulated Militia"

I know that your going to go on and on and on, misinterpreting the Constitution anyway you want, but the reality is that the intention of the second amendment was to insure that the States had the right to have "A well regulated Militia".

That does not mean there's an automatic mandate to disarm the population. It does mean that government at all levels have the power to regulate arms.
 
A lot of mental gymnastics in an attempt to reinterpret the 2A. You ignore the historical context, both pre and post revolutionary war and even into modern history that supports the interpretation of the 2A. I don't even hear the MSM or politicians using this angle. We can agree to disagree. It s obvious you have your thought and interpretation. I'll use context, intent, audience, and historical relevance to help frame the meaning.

You apparently think that the founding fathers were semi-literate, that what they wrote and what they meant were two different things.

You're wrong, they were very literate and very exacting in what they wrote in the Constitution. They meant what they wrote.
 
There's one hugs problem with your argument:

That's not what they founding fathers wrote in the Constitution!

Can you find the phrase "We The Armed People" in the Constitution?

The 2nd amendment doesn't say that any group of people can form a militia. It says a "Well-Regulated Militia". Given that the Constitution also says that any powers not given to the federal government are invested in the states, it's clear that they meant that the states regulate the "Well-Regulated Militia". So the only valid Militias are State Militias.

It's interesting that you have to butcher the 2nd amendment in order to make your case. The Constitution does not say:

“The right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed.”

The Founding fathers certainly could have made that statement as a separate sentence, but they didn't.

What the 2nd amendment does say is:

"A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed."

All ONE sentence all all parts referring to "A well regulated Militia"

I know that your going to go on and on and on, misinterpreting the Constitution anyway you want, but the reality is that the intention of the second amendment was to insure that the States had the right to have "A well regulated Militia".

That does not mean there's an automatic mandate to disarm the population. It does mean that government at all levels have the power to regulate arms.
And you became a legal scholar when? Where did you receive your JD degree?
You should inform the Supreme Court of your legal analysis so they can properly interpret the 2nd Amendment.
Thanks
 
You apparently think that the founding fathers were semi-literate, that what they wrote and what they meant were two different things.

You're wrong, they were very literate and very exacting in what they wrote in the Constitution. They meant what they wrote.
Never said they weren't, don't conflate or put words in my mouth or anyone's mouth. What you want to believe is that the historical context that surrounds the intent of the constitution is void. You want to remove the constitution from its relevant historical intent and interpret it only inside modern confines.
 
There's one hugs problem with your argument:

That's not what they founding fathers wrote in the Constitution!

Can you find the phrase "We The Armed People" in the Constitution?

The 2nd amendment doesn't say that any group of people can form a militia. It says a "Well-Regulated Militia". Given that the Constitution also says that any powers not given to the federal government are invested in the states, it's clear that they meant that the states regulate the "Well-Regulated Militia". So the only valid Militias are State Militias.

It's interesting that you have to butcher the 2nd amendment in order to make your case. The Constitution does not say:

“The right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed.”

The Founding fathers certainly could have made that statement as a separate sentence, but they didn't.

What the 2nd amendment does say is:

"A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed."

All ONE sentence all all parts referring to "A well regulated Militia"

I know that your going to go on and on and on, misinterpreting the Constitution anyway you want, but the reality is that the intention of the second amendment was to insure that the States had the right to have "A well regulated Militia".

That does not mean there's an automatic mandate to disarm the population. It does mean that government at all levels have the power to regulate arms.
Think about what you’re saying once…..You believe our framers wanted an armed STATE RUN militia to protect We The People from a potentially tyrannical government?
You didn’t know that state government is government?
 
And you became a legal scholar when? Where did you receive your JD degree?
You should inform the Supreme Court of your legal analysis so they can properly interpret the 2nd Amendment.
Thanks

The Constitution wasn't written for legal scholars. It was written for the common people at the time.

They needed to understand it so they could vote for legislators who would ratify it or not.

But you can bet you ass that the 'legal scholars' have been misinterpreting it since it was written.
 
Guns are the weapon, but not the reason for the deaths. What is the reason for so many mass shootings?

Cars driven into crowds are also used as a weapon, for example.
A small percentage are orchestrated by the Deep State. The rest are copy cats or just random angry people and psychos. But the Deep State orchestration end is the governing body of the whole phenomenon. There is an intended political end to the means.
 

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