The Quran is Hate Speech

How about book, chapter, verse and context?

Read Ephesians 5:22-24. It says that wives must submit to their husbands in every thing.

FAIL

He said book chapter verse & CONTEXT.

I thought that it would need no explanation. It is pretty clear. It is part of a letter supposedly written by Paul. In it, he gives instructions about ordinary life and different relationships.

Wives, submit to your own husbands, as to the Lord. For the husband is the head of the wife even as Christ is the head of the church, his body, and is himself its Savior. Now as the church submits to Christ, so also wives should submit in everything to their husbands.
 
Last edited:
Sunni Man,

Since you are one of them please tell me how you feel about the attacks of 9 / 11...were they justified ? In addition is it true that your blessed Prophet Mohummed, Peace be Upon Him, engaged in sexual relations up to and including sexual intercourse with girls as young a five years old or is this just another myth put forward by Muslim hating Christians?

Thank You for asking;

Killing civilians is NEVER condoned in the Quran; and in fact is forbidden.

(As to who actually carried out 9/11 and why. In my opinion is still an open question).

And NO, Muhammad (PBUH) never had sexual relations with a pubescent girl of any age.

You don't know who carried out the attacks on 911?
The mullah here in Atlanta clearly stated and proved without a doubt that it was Tariq Pee Wee Herman and refuted all of the other evidence the US government provided that it was Al Qaeda Muslims led by Osama bin Laden.
 
Read Ephesians 5:22-24. It says that wives must submit to their husbands in every thing.

FAIL

He said book chapter verse & CONTEXT.

I thought that it would need no explanation. It is pretty clear. It is part of a letter supposedly written by Paul. In it, he gives instructions about ordinary life and different relationships.

Wives, submit to your own husbands, as to the Lord. For the husband is the head of the wife even as Christ is the head of the church, his body, and is himself its Savior. Now as the church submits to Christ, so also wives should submit in everything to their husbands.

Pretty plain and simple. The wife is to submit like the church submits to Chris. Everything in Christianity is founded on love, not force.
 
You don't know who carried out the attacks on 911?
The mullah here in Atlanta clearly stated and proved without a doubt that it was Tariq Pee Wee Herman and refuted all of the other evidence the US government provided that it was Al Qaeda Muslims led by Osama bin Laden.
As loyal American you should contact the proper authorities with this vital information. :doubt:
 
Last edited:
You don't know who carried out the attacks on 911?
The mullah here in Atlanta clearly stated and proved without a doubt that it was Tariq Pee Wee Herman and refuted all of the other evidence the US government provided that it was Al Qaeda Muslims led by Osama bin Laden.
As loyal American you should contact the proper authorities with this vital information. :doubt:

Are you going to respond to my question or not? Who is God speaking to in Deut 18:18?
 
FAIL

He said book chapter verse & CONTEXT.

I thought that it would need no explanation. It is pretty clear. It is part of a letter supposedly written by Paul. In it, he gives instructions about ordinary life and different relationships.

Wives, submit to your own husbands, as to the Lord. For the husband is the head of the wife even as Christ is the head of the church, his body, and is himself its Savior. Now as the church submits to Christ, so also wives should submit in everything to their husbands.

Pretty plain and simple. The wife is to submit like the church submits to Chris. Everything in Christianity is founded on love, not force.

That section, in context, says nothing about doing it due to love or force.
It gives no disclaimer concerning circumstances in which that wife does not feel love. She is still to obey.

I find it interesting that it does not give instruction concerning whether or not the husband is to obey the wife. The husband is head of the wife. They are not equals.

Anyway, obedience is to be done.
 
I thought that it would need no explanation. It is pretty clear. It is part of a letter supposedly written by Paul. In it, he gives instructions about ordinary life and different relationships.

Wives, submit to your own husbands, as to the Lord. For the husband is the head of the wife even as Christ is the head of the church, his body, and is himself its Savior. Now as the church submits to Christ, so also wives should submit in everything to their husbands.

Pretty plain and simple. The wife is to submit like the church submits to Chris. Everything in Christianity is founded on love, not force.

That section, in context, says nothing about doing it due to love or force.
It gives no disclaimer concerning circumstances in which that wife does not feel love. She is still to obey.

I find it interesting that it does not give instruction concerning whether or not the husband is to obey the wife. The husband is head of the wife. They are not equals.

Anyway, obedience is to be done.

You just changed words. It does not say "to obey". It says "to submit". Submitting in marriage is not obeying. Submitting is willing. Obeying is by command. Maybe that's why you're confused.
 
the bible is hate speach
it's comically funny though, we need a new movie about it.

How about book, chapter, verse and context?

Read Ephesians 5:22-24. It says that wives must submit to their husbands in every thing.

I ask for examples and this is what you call hate speech??????:cuckoo:

21 Submitting yourselves one to another in the fear of God. 22 Wives, submit yourselves unto your own husbands, as unto the Lord. 23 For the husband is the head of the wife, even as Christ is the head of the church: and he is the saviour of the body. 24 Therefore as the church is subject unto Christ, so let the wives be to their own husbands in every thing. 25 Husbands, love your wives, even as Christ also loved the church, and gave himself for it; 26 That he might sanctify and cleanse it with the washing of water by the word, 27 That he might present it to himself a glorious church, not having spot, or wrinkle, or any such thing; but that it should be holy and without blemish. 28 So ought men to love their wives as their own bodies. He that loveth his wife loveth himself. 29 For no man ever yet hated his own flesh; but nourisheth and cherisheth it, even as the Lord the church: 30 For we are members of his body, of his flesh, and of his bones. 31 For this cause shall a man leave his father and mother, and shall be joined unto his wife, and they two shall be one flesh. 32 This is a great mystery: but I speak concerning Christ and the church. 33 Nevertheless let every one of you in particular so love his wife even as himself; and the wife see that she reverence her husband.


Why wouldn't you list the passage in context?
 
The US Constitution is a hate filled document - it used to state that negro people weren`t 100% human. Almost like Mein Kamph which stated the Jews were only half-human.

Can you list the article in the Constitution that "states" that?

No. I dont know the exact Amendment but Im certain most of the right-wing, loonies here at USMB could tell you.

That is because it is NOT in the Constitution. The Amendment to free slaves was made to clarify what was already there.
 
Does the Bible contain hate?
Making the case that the Bible contains hate literature

Lev 20;13
"And if a man lie with mankind, as with womankind, both of them have committed abomination: they shall surely be put to death; their blood shall be upon them."

For adultery (including urban rape victims who fail to scream loud enough)

If a damsel that is a virgin be betrothed unto an husband, and a man find her in the city, and lie with her; Then ye shall bring them both out unto the gate of that city, and ye shall stone them with stones that they die; the damsel, because she cried not, being in the city. Deuteronomy 22:23-24

For a woman who is not a virgin on her wedding night

If any man take a wife, and go in unto her, and hate her ... and say, I took this woman, and when I came to her, I found her not a maid: Then shall the father of the damsel, and her mother, take and bring forth the tokens of the damsel's virginity unto the elders of the city in the gate: And the damsel's father shall say ... these are the tokens of my daughter's virginity. And they shall spread the cloth before the elders of the city. ... But if this thing be true, and the tokens of virginity be not found for the damsel: Then they shall bring out the damsel to the door of her father's house, and the men of her city shall stone her with stones that she die. Deuteronomy 22:13-21


For worshipping other gods

If there be found among you ... that ... hath gone and served other gods, and worshipped them ... Then shalt thou ... tone them with stones, till they die. Deuteronomy 17:2-5

What the Bible says about stoning


Isn't this a Islam doctrine?

These are passages out of the OT. That was before the New Covenant, where sins could be forgiven and were no longer carried forward on proceeding generations.
Each of those listed above were to protect the families from having to carry a sinner in their family. The sins: lewd or perverse behavior (the first three), bearing false witness (the forth), and the last was for disrespecting the Lord [that used the weak Hebrews, that had come out of bondage to throw down the peoples that practiced human sacrifice to those gods (the ones that were worshipped in that area)] and to protect the Hebrew people from being the sacrifices.

After the NT (and the New Covenant) sins could be forgiven. There was no need to kill people to protect families, every person started with a clean slate. That is why most Christians do not want 'peaceful' muslims killed; there is a chance for their redemption and to join the Lord.
 
Islam

A Prophet like Moses

Deuteronomy 18:18-19
"I will raise them up a Prophet from among their brethren, like unto thee, and will put my words in his mouth; and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him. And it shall come to pass, that whosoever will not hearken unto my words which he shall speak in my name, I will require it of him."

Problem:
This is a key passage in the Moslem claims for Muhammad, whom they claim is the prophet like Moses predicted in this passage. They support their claim by producing an impressive list of ways in which Muhammad was like Moses and in which Jesus was not like Moses. This list includes the following: Moses Jesus Muhammed
Rejected by his people and then accepted Yes No Yes
Became a national leader Yes No Yes
Miraculous birth No Yes No
Encountered enemies in battle Yes No Yes
Family - married with children Yes No Yes

To answer an argument like this takes some thought, and this may not be available when being pressed by a Moslem in discussion.


Solution:
There are a number of ways in which Moses was like Jesus, but unlike Muhammad:
Moses had no known tomb, but died on Mount Nebo (Deut. 34:6).
Moses came out of Egypt at the Exodus, and Jesus went to Egypt as a baby and returned.
Moses was brought up by his mother as a nurse in Pharaoh's household, and Jesus was brought up by Mary, but Muhammad was an orphan. Moses was saved as a baby in the rushes; Jesus was saved when God told Joseph to take him to Egypt.
Moses was transfigured on Mt. Sinai (Exodus 34:29) and Jesus was transfigured in Matthew 17:1-6.
Moses offered to take the sins of Israel on himself in Exodus 32:30-32; Jesus was sacrificed for the sins of mankind.
Even at this level of argument there are more points of similarity between Jesus and Moses than there are between Muhammad and Moses. Not only that, but some of the points where Jesus seems to be different from Moses only appear because the Moslems have not considered the whole of the life of Jesus. For example, Jesus was rejected by his people and has not been accepted by them yet. But the time will come when they will look on him whom they have pierced (Zech. 12:10) and God will cleanse them (Ezek. 36:26-31). Similarly, Jesus will become a national leader and will encounter his enemies in battle (Zech. 14:3).


In Deuteronomy 18:18 God tells Moses to inform Israel that the prophet was to be from among their brethren, which means that he would have to be an Israelite. Moslems who dispute this assert that, as the Arabs are the brothers of the Jews, this refers to an Arab. However, there is no scriptural evidence to support this. The Arabs are never called the brethren of the Jews in the Bible. There are a few verses where Edom is described as the brother (singular) of Israel (e.g. Num. 20:14; Deut. 23:7; Amos 1:11), but the word brethren (plural) is never used. In any case, Muhammad is not a descendent of Edom (who joined the Jews in the second century BC), but of Ishmael, who is never referred to as the brother of Israel. The passage can only mean that the prophet like unto Moses was to be an Israelite.

To list the similarities and differences between Jesus, Muhammad and Moses is a rather inconclusive and man-made way of looking at Deuteronomy 18. Rather than humans making lists of ways that Muhammad is, or is not, like Moses, it is better to let the passage itself say in what way the prophet will be like Moses. This is given us in the next two verses:
"And if thou say in thine heart, How shall we know the word which the LORD hath not spoken? When a prophet speaketh in the name of the LORD, if the thing follow not, nor come to pass, that is the thing which the LORD hath not spoken, but the prophet hath spoken it presumptuously: thou shalt not be afraid of him." (Deut. 18:21-22)

The prophet would validate his message by some sign, either a miracle or a prediction of the future which he would predict or announce and which would then be fulfilled. There is no doubt that Jesus worked miracles; even the Qur'an admits this (e.g. Q 5:115). However, Muhammad never performed a miracle and the set of predictions claimed for him is singularly unimpressive (he is said to have predicted that his followers would win the battle of Badr - probably a method of encouraging them to fight more fiercely, and self fulfilling as one would never of heard of the prediction if the battle had been lost). The lack of signs from Muhammad is also commented upon in the Qur'an with words like: "They say: Why not a sign sent down to him from his Lord?" (Q 10:20; see also Q 6:109; Q 13:7; Q 17:59; Q 21:5,6). There is only one reason that the Qur'an would record passages like these, and that is because Muhammad never gave a prophecy or performed a miracle.


Moslems cannot have things both ways. Either the passage in Deuteronomy 18 is from God, in which case they must believe it and reject Muhammad because he does not fulfill scripture, or it is not from God, in which case they cannot claim it as a prediction of Muhammad.

Deuteronomy 18:18 is cited in Acts 3:22. Here the apostle Peter, speaking words from God through the Holy Spirit, identifies the prophet like Moses as being Jesus Christ and not Muhammad.
 
Last edited:
Deuteronomy 18:15,18 is probably the passage in the Bible which is most often by Muslims thought to be a prophecy about Muhammad. Let us therefore look at this verse very carefully. In verse 15 Moses is speaking, in verse 18 the Lord himself is speaking through Moses.


15 The LORD your God will raise up for you a prophet like me
from among your own brothers. You must listen to him.
...
18 I will raise up for them a prophet like you from among their brothers;
I will put my words in his mouth, and he will tell them everything I command him.
It is urged (by Muslims) that the promised prophet was not to rise among the Israelites but among their "brothers" the Ishmaelites (compare Genesis 25:9,18); that no such prophet did rise among the Israelites (Deut. 34:10); that Muhammad was like Moses in many points, e.g., both were brought up in their enemies' houses, appeared among idolaters, were at first rejected by their own people and afterwards accepted by them, each gave a law, fled from their enemies (Moses to Midian, Muhammad to Medinah, a name of a similar meaning), marched to battle against their enemies, wrought miracles, and enabled their followers after their own decease to conquer Palestine.

In reply it may be said that Deut. 34:10 refers only to the time at which it was written, and the word "since" may be said to imply the expectation, that such a prophet would arise "in Israel", not outside.

The words "from the midst of thee" are almost certainly genuine, though even without them the meaning is clear. It is true that Ishmael was Isaac's half-brother: but, if the Ishmaelites may be called the brethren of Israel, assuredly, the Israelite tribes may more correctly be called one another's brethren. (Compare[1], Surah 7:83, "their brother Shu'aib.") Israelites are called one another's brethren in this very book of Deuteronomy, e.g., in chapters 3:18; 15:7; 17:15; 24:14. In ch. 17:15 we have an exactly parallel passage in reference to the appointment of a king: "one from among thy brethren shalt thou set king over thee. "Most, if not all, the kingdoms of Europe are ruled by kings who belong to families which are or were originally foreig;: but in all history we never hear of the Israelites appointing over themselves a foreigner as king. They should have gone to the Ishmaelites for their kings, if the Muslim explanation of "from among their brethren" in Deut. 18:18 is correct.

They did not do so, because they understood their own language. Who at the present day among Muslims, if told to summon one of his "brethren" to receive some important post, would conclude that members of his own family were excluded, and that he must find a man whose ancestors had, hundreds of years before, been kindred to his own? Moreover, the Taurat clearly says that no prophet was to be expected from Ishmael, for God's covenant was made with Isaac, not with him (Gen. 17:18-21; 21:10-12).

The Qur'an also in several places speaks of the prophetic office as having been entrusted to Isaac's seed (Surah 29:27; Surah 45:15). The promised prophet was to be sent unto Israel: but Muhammad professed to be sent to the Arabs among whom he was born. As for a likeness to Moses, we learn from Deut. 34:10-12, that the two points in which the Israelites expected the coming prophet to resemble Moses were: (I) personal knowledge of God, and (2) mighty works. As regards the former, is there not a tradition that Muhammad said, "We have not known Thee in the truth of Thy knowledge (or 'as Thou shouldest be known')"? With reference to mighty works,[2] the Qur'an tells us that Muhammad was not[3] given the power of working miracles (Surah 17:61: see Baidawi's and Abbasi's commentaries: Surahs 2:112; 6:37,57,109; 7:202; 10:21; 13:8,30; 29:49,50).

The points of resemblance between Moses and Muhammad which Muslims adduce might be found in Musailamah and in Mani for the most part, but do not prove that these men were prophets. Finally, God Himself has explained in the Gospel that this prophecy referred to Christ, not to Muhammad (compare Deut. 18:15,19, "Unto Him ye shall hearken," etc., with Matt. 17:5; see also Mark 9:2, and Luke 9:35). Jesus explains that this and other passages in the Taurat refer to Himself (John 5:46: see Gen. 12:3; 26:4; 18:18; 22:18; 28:14). He was descended from Judah (Matt. 1:1-16; Luke 3:23-38; Heb. 7:14), was born in Israel, and spent almost all His life among the Jews, and sent His disciples in the first place to the latter (Matt. 10:6) and only secondly to the Gentiles (Luke 24:47; Matt. 28:18-20). In Acts 3:25,26, the prophecy we are considering is definitely referred to Christ.

Deuteronomy 18:18 -- a prophecy of Muhammad?
 
Sorry bout that,


1. So islam uses The Bible, in order to promote thier so called prophet?
2. And then want to kill us Christians and destroy our Bible?
3. islam is a fake/false, and not worthy of any bodies respect, just fools.


Regards,
SirJamesofTexas
 

Forum List

Back
Top