The no more states solution

Yes I gave you a link saying the Arab Canaanites were the first.

You'll have to cut and paste the portion that said no one else was there before the "Arab" Canaanites.

You have read and infer what has been implied.
If for example, you read the sky iis blue, you then have to infer it is not green.
I would never be able to find an exact quote saying the sky is not green.
 
And there is no evidence of anyone being there before them.

Link?

{...
Key Points
  • Nomadic Bedouin tribes dominated the Arabian Peninsula before the rise of Islam.
  • Family groups called clans formed larger tribal units, which reinforced family cooperation in the difficult living conditions on the Arabian peninsula and protected its members against other tribes.
  • The Bedouin tribes were nomadic pastoralists who relied on their herds of goats, sheep, and camels for meat, milk, cheese, blood, fur/wool, and other sustenance.
  • The pre-Islamic Bedouins also hunted, served as bodyguards, escorted caravans, worked as mercenaries, and traded or raided to gain animals, women, gold, fabric, and other luxury items.
  • Arab tribes begin to appear in the south Syrian deserts and southern Jordan around 200 CE, but spread from the central Arabian Peninsula after the rise of Islam in the 630s CE.
Key Terms
  • Nabatean: an ancient Semitic people who inhabited northern Arabia and Southern Levant, ca. 37–100 CE.
  • Bedouin: a predominantly desert-dwelling Arabian ethnic group traditionally divided into tribes or clans.
...}

You will also notice from the Land of Canaan, that originally being nomadic, Arabs do not harm or prevent others from moving in, as the Canaanites allowed the Urites, Amorites, Chaldeans, Phoenicians, Philistines, Nabateans, etc., to peacefully settle into the Land of Canaan.

Burst your bubble,
Arabic is not even mentioned, it's a foreign language.

Canaanite languages, group of Northern Central or Northwestern Semitic languages including Hebrew, Moabite, Phoenician, and Punic. They were spoken in ancient times in Palestine, on the coast of Syria, and in scattered colonies elsewhere around the Mediterranean. An early form of Canaanite is attested in the Tell el-Amarna letters (c. 1400 BC). Moabite, which is very close to Hebrew, is known chiefly from one inscription dating from the 8th century BC. The only living Canaanite language is Hebrew, which was revived as a spoken language in the 19th and 20th centuries.

Wrong.
I never once mentioned Arabic, which obviously is a more modern Arab language that did come from the Arabian Peninsula, and did become adopted by most of the Mideast.
Semitic mean Arab language group, NOT Arabic, which is only one modern example of the Arab language group.

So basically you call just anything in the Middle East - "ARAB".

Including the dinosaurs, all were Arabs.

I get it, you're wrong.

No, you are totally wrong.
For example, clearly Persians are not at all Arab, neither are the Kushites and Copts of the Egyptian ruling class. The People of the Sea, like the Hyksos, Phoenicians, Philistines, etc., likely were not Arab, but blended and adopted Arab language use.

Funny, you say I'm wrong,
but concede to everything I've said so long.
Therefore you've just proven yourself Arabs are foreign to Levant.

Therefore no more states solution,
and no more new or old franchises of Arabia.

Each family of nations to their land and civilization :bye1:


Le-Grand-Kurdistan-et-le-Grand-Isra%C3%ABl.jpg

Wrong.
Arabs are NOT at all from Arabia, and we just named them badly,
And Israel has no ancestral or purchased land at all.
It is a bunch of illegal immigrant squatters who never paid for anything.
 
Yes I gave you a link saying the Arab Canaanites were the first.

You'll have to cut and paste the portion that said no one else was there before the "Arab" Canaanites.

If Jericho was the first city in the world, that means there was not other city there first.
If there were others there first, then what happened to them?
Because the Canaanites have no history of invading or harming other cultures.

If Jericho was the first city in the world,

Who said that? Is Jericho in Arabia now?

Jericho prceded Arabia.
But there is no question the Canaanites were Arabs.
Just that Arabs did not at all come from Arabia, as you seem to mistakenly believe.
 
And there is no evidence of anyone being there before them.

Link?

{...
Key Points
  • Nomadic Bedouin tribes dominated the Arabian Peninsula before the rise of Islam.
  • Family groups called clans formed larger tribal units, which reinforced family cooperation in the difficult living conditions on the Arabian peninsula and protected its members against other tribes.
  • The Bedouin tribes were nomadic pastoralists who relied on their herds of goats, sheep, and camels for meat, milk, cheese, blood, fur/wool, and other sustenance.
  • The pre-Islamic Bedouins also hunted, served as bodyguards, escorted caravans, worked as mercenaries, and traded or raided to gain animals, women, gold, fabric, and other luxury items.
  • Arab tribes begin to appear in the south Syrian deserts and southern Jordan around 200 CE, but spread from the central Arabian Peninsula after the rise of Islam in the 630s CE.
Key Terms
  • Nabatean: an ancient Semitic people who inhabited northern Arabia and Southern Levant, ca. 37–100 CE.
  • Bedouin: a predominantly desert-dwelling Arabian ethnic group traditionally divided into tribes or clans.
...}

You will also notice from the Land of Canaan, that originally being nomadic, Arabs do not harm or prevent others from moving in, as the Canaanites allowed the Urites, Amorites, Chaldeans, Phoenicians, Philistines, Nabateans, etc., to peacefully settle into the Land of Canaan.

No link proving your claim that no one was there before?

Yes I gave you a link saying the Arab Canaanites were the first.
That means there was no one before them.
And we can tell because the Canaanites don't have a xenophobic history of attacking strangers, but instead blending with them.

This part was funny......

Arab tribes begin to appear in the south Syrian deserts and southern Jordan around 200 CE,

They went from Israel to Arabia, skipping Syria and Jordan.....but then came back around 200 CE?

DURR.

Wrong.
They did not skip Syria and Jordan, on the way to the Arabian Peninsula.
But clearly the author is differentiating between those early migrations to the Arabian Peninsula and those migrating back, much later.
That makes sense because those living on the Arabian Peninsula would have been influences by water trade from Africa, India, etc., and grown different from the Land of Canaan origins.

Wrong.
They did not skip Syria and Jordan, on the way to the Arabian Peninsula.


You posted a bad source? Why?


No, you misinterpreted.
It said that Arabs from Arabia started moving back into Syria and Jordan.
It said nothing about the fact Arabs not from Arabia had also always lived in Syria and Jordan.
 
The word Palestine is properly pronounced with a soft 'F" instead of a hard 'P'.

{...
Indeed, there is no hard P sound in Arabic, but there is a softer F, and Palestinians pronounce the name of their would-be state as “Falastin” (fah-leh-STEEN) — as do most Hebrew-speaking Israelis.
...}

Just look at the word Phoenician.
Falistine is nearly identical in phoenetics.

And if your attempt was to claim Hebrew influence in the name Palestine, you can't, because Hebrew also has no hard P, and instead also used the soft F, because Hebrew is of Arab origins.

Nope,

Hebrew deffinately has a hard 'P' sound, as much as any of the Canaanite dialects.
Arabs can't pronounce 'P-alestine' because they speak a foreign language.

That's it.

It would not at all matter if modern Arabs were speaking a foreign language.
They are, since Arabic is not native.
But the people and culture are, so it is irrelevent.

And no, ancient Hebrew would not have pronounced Palestine with a hard P either.
They prounced it with a soft F instead, just like Arabs do.
{...

Philistia (Hebrew: פלשת‎, Pleshet) was a confederation of cities in the Southwest Levant. Its appearance follows the invasion of Egypt by the foreign sea People, of which Philistines or Peleset are part, and their alleged relocation to the southern abandoned coast of Canaan by Ramesses III following his victory over them. Philistia northern boundary was the Yarkon River with the Mediterranean Sea on the west, the Kingdom of Judah to the east and the Wadi El-Arish to the south.[1][2] Philistia consisted of the Five Lords of the Philistines, described in the Book of Joshua (Joshua 13:3) and the Books of Samuel (1 Samuel 6:17), comprising Ashkelon, Ashdod, Ekron, Gath, and Gaza, in the south-western Levant.[3]

The Five Lords of the Philistines are described in the Hebrew Bible as being in constant struggle and interaction with the neighbouring Israelites, Canaanites and Egyptians, being gradually absorbed into the Canaanite culture.[4]

The Philistines were no longer mentioned following the conquest of the Levant by the Neo-Assyrian Empire (911–605 BC). Genetic and archeological evidence suggest that the Philistines immigrated from Southern Europe to Canaan, and mixed with the native Canaanites during the first couple of centuries.[5]

...}

Ah,
I get it,
so it's reading comprehension...

Let's check out one idiot as a case study,
who starts with:

And no, ancient Hebrew would not have pronounced Palestine with a hard P either.
They prounced it with a soft F instead, just like Arabs do.

And in the same breath posts this as a proof:
(Hebrew: פלשת‎, Pleshet)

Then acts like he's not a lunatic.

Don't you think that guy is an idiot? Tell him Rigby...

Anyway, even Rigby knows Arabs can't pronounce 'P-alestine'.

Wrong, Pleshet is pronounced with a soft F, not hard P.
The word Palestine is not supposed to be pronounced with a hard P.
That is the anglicized version.
Any Israeli who pronounces it with a hard P is exposing his European origins.

Well, if only some high power could create a world were all Hebrew words, like 'P-alestine',
originated from Arabic, so that Arabs could pronounce them...
and erase all the verses from Torah where it says 'P-leshet'.

If only you could force everyone to pretend with you from now on,
that when it says 'Pontiac' on the car, the correct way is to pronounce it just like Arabs can't...


Yeah what a shame,
if only Arabs could pronounce a 'P',
you'd need so much less work and excuses for that lunacy.

That is just a stupid lie.
I already quoted where is said Hebrew also has no hard P, and it is pronounced as a soft F instead, in Hebrew.
 
And there is no evidence of anyone being there before them.

Link?

{...
Key Points
  • Nomadic Bedouin tribes dominated the Arabian Peninsula before the rise of Islam.
  • Family groups called clans formed larger tribal units, which reinforced family cooperation in the difficult living conditions on the Arabian peninsula and protected its members against other tribes.
  • The Bedouin tribes were nomadic pastoralists who relied on their herds of goats, sheep, and camels for meat, milk, cheese, blood, fur/wool, and other sustenance.
  • The pre-Islamic Bedouins also hunted, served as bodyguards, escorted caravans, worked as mercenaries, and traded or raided to gain animals, women, gold, fabric, and other luxury items.
  • Arab tribes begin to appear in the south Syrian deserts and southern Jordan around 200 CE, but spread from the central Arabian Peninsula after the rise of Islam in the 630s CE.
Key Terms
  • Nabatean: an ancient Semitic people who inhabited northern Arabia and Southern Levant, ca. 37–100 CE.
  • Bedouin: a predominantly desert-dwelling Arabian ethnic group traditionally divided into tribes or clans.
...}

You will also notice from the Land of Canaan, that originally being nomadic, Arabs do not harm or prevent others from moving in, as the Canaanites allowed the Urites, Amorites, Chaldeans, Phoenicians, Philistines, Nabateans, etc., to peacefully settle into the Land of Canaan.

Burst your bubble,
Arabic is not even mentioned, it's a foreign language.

Canaanite languages, group of Northern Central or Northwestern Semitic languages including Hebrew, Moabite, Phoenician, and Punic. They were spoken in ancient times in Palestine, on the coast of Syria, and in scattered colonies elsewhere around the Mediterranean. An early form of Canaanite is attested in the Tell el-Amarna letters (c. 1400 BC). Moabite, which is very close to Hebrew, is known chiefly from one inscription dating from the 8th century BC. The only living Canaanite language is Hebrew, which was revived as a spoken language in the 19th and 20th centuries.

Wrong.
I never once mentioned Arabic, which obviously is a more modern Arab language that did come from the Arabian Peninsula, and did become adopted by most of the Mideast.
Semitic mean Arab language group, NOT Arabic, which is only one modern example of the Arab language group.

So basically you call just anything in the Middle East - "ARAB".

Including the dinosaurs, all were Arabs.

I get it, you're wrong.

No, you are totally wrong.
For example, clearly Persians are not at all Arab, neither are the Kushites and Copts of the Egyptian ruling class. The People of the Sea, like the Hyksos, Phoenicians, Philistines, etc., likely were not Arab, but blended and adopted Arab language use.

Funny, you say I'm wrong,
but concede to everything I've said so long.
Therefore you've just proven yourself Arabs are foreign to Levant.

Therefore no more states solution,
and no more new or old franchises of Arabia.

Each family of nations to their land and civilization :bye1:


Le-Grand-Kurdistan-et-le-Grand-Isra%C3%ABl.jpg

Wrong.
Arabs are NOT at all from Arabia, and we just named them badly,
And Israel has no ancestral or purchased land at all.
It is a bunch of illegal immigrant squatters who never paid for anything.

Yeah, I already got it, Arabs are from Africa, earth is flat,
and Mona Lisa was a famous Palestinian juggler

And when did the voices start appearing?
 
Yes I gave you a link saying the Arab Canaanites were the first.

You'll have to cut and paste the portion that said no one else was there before the "Arab" Canaanites.

You have read and infer what has been implied.
If for example, you read the sky iis blue, you then have to infer it is not green.
I would never be able to find an exact quote saying the sky is not green.

You claimed that no one was in Arabia before the "Arab" Canaanites showed up.

Do you have any backup for that claim or not?
 
And there is no evidence of anyone being there before them.

Link?

{...
Key Points
  • Nomadic Bedouin tribes dominated the Arabian Peninsula before the rise of Islam.
  • Family groups called clans formed larger tribal units, which reinforced family cooperation in the difficult living conditions on the Arabian peninsula and protected its members against other tribes.
  • The Bedouin tribes were nomadic pastoralists who relied on their herds of goats, sheep, and camels for meat, milk, cheese, blood, fur/wool, and other sustenance.
  • The pre-Islamic Bedouins also hunted, served as bodyguards, escorted caravans, worked as mercenaries, and traded or raided to gain animals, women, gold, fabric, and other luxury items.
  • Arab tribes begin to appear in the south Syrian deserts and southern Jordan around 200 CE, but spread from the central Arabian Peninsula after the rise of Islam in the 630s CE.
Key Terms
  • Nabatean: an ancient Semitic people who inhabited northern Arabia and Southern Levant, ca. 37–100 CE.
  • Bedouin: a predominantly desert-dwelling Arabian ethnic group traditionally divided into tribes or clans.
...}

You will also notice from the Land of Canaan, that originally being nomadic, Arabs do not harm or prevent others from moving in, as the Canaanites allowed the Urites, Amorites, Chaldeans, Phoenicians, Philistines, Nabateans, etc., to peacefully settle into the Land of Canaan.

No link proving your claim that no one was there before?

Yes I gave you a link saying the Arab Canaanites were the first.
That means there was no one before them.
And we can tell because the Canaanites don't have a xenophobic history of attacking strangers, but instead blending with them.

This part was funny......

Arab tribes begin to appear in the south Syrian deserts and southern Jordan around 200 CE,

They went from Israel to Arabia, skipping Syria and Jordan.....but then came back around 200 CE?

DURR.

Wrong.
They did not skip Syria and Jordan, on the way to the Arabian Peninsula.
But clearly the author is differentiating between those early migrations to the Arabian Peninsula and those migrating back, much later.
That makes sense because those living on the Arabian Peninsula would have been influences by water trade from Africa, India, etc., and grown different from the Land of Canaan origins.

Wrong.
They did not skip Syria and Jordan, on the way to the Arabian Peninsula.


You posted a bad source? Why?


No, you misinterpreted.
It said that Arabs from Arabia started moving back into Syria and Jordan.
It said nothing about the fact Arabs not from Arabia had also always lived in Syria and Jordan.

It said that Arabs from Arabia started moving back into Syria and Jordan.

Arabs from Israel weren't already in Syria and Jordan in the 1000 plus years since they also went to Arabia? Why not?

Only Arabs from Arabia count? Your confusing theories are getting more complex.

It said nothing about the fact Arabs not from Arabia had also always lived in Syria and Jordan.

It didn't say they always did. Why not? Why mention it at all if they were already there?

Are you making stuff up again?
 
The word Palestine is properly pronounced with a soft 'F" instead of a hard 'P'.

{...
Indeed, there is no hard P sound in Arabic, but there is a softer F, and Palestinians pronounce the name of their would-be state as “Falastin” (fah-leh-STEEN) — as do most Hebrew-speaking Israelis.
...}

Just look at the word Phoenician.
Falistine is nearly identical in phoenetics.

And if your attempt was to claim Hebrew influence in the name Palestine, you can't, because Hebrew also has no hard P, and instead also used the soft F, because Hebrew is of Arab origins.

Nope,

Hebrew deffinately has a hard 'P' sound, as much as any of the Canaanite dialects.
Arabs can't pronounce 'P-alestine' because they speak a foreign language.

That's it.

It would not at all matter if modern Arabs were speaking a foreign language.
They are, since Arabic is not native.
But the people and culture are, so it is irrelevent.

And no, ancient Hebrew would not have pronounced Palestine with a hard P either.
They prounced it with a soft F instead, just like Arabs do.
{...

Philistia (Hebrew: פלשת‎, Pleshet) was a confederation of cities in the Southwest Levant. Its appearance follows the invasion of Egypt by the foreign sea People, of which Philistines or Peleset are part, and their alleged relocation to the southern abandoned coast of Canaan by Ramesses III following his victory over them. Philistia northern boundary was the Yarkon River with the Mediterranean Sea on the west, the Kingdom of Judah to the east and the Wadi El-Arish to the south.[1][2] Philistia consisted of the Five Lords of the Philistines, described in the Book of Joshua (Joshua 13:3) and the Books of Samuel (1 Samuel 6:17), comprising Ashkelon, Ashdod, Ekron, Gath, and Gaza, in the south-western Levant.[3]

The Five Lords of the Philistines are described in the Hebrew Bible as being in constant struggle and interaction with the neighbouring Israelites, Canaanites and Egyptians, being gradually absorbed into the Canaanite culture.[4]

The Philistines were no longer mentioned following the conquest of the Levant by the Neo-Assyrian Empire (911–605 BC). Genetic and archeological evidence suggest that the Philistines immigrated from Southern Europe to Canaan, and mixed with the native Canaanites during the first couple of centuries.[5]

...}

Ah,
I get it,
so it's reading comprehension...

Let's check out one idiot as a case study,
who starts with:

And no, ancient Hebrew would not have pronounced Palestine with a hard P either.
They prounced it with a soft F instead, just like Arabs do.

And in the same breath posts this as a proof:
(Hebrew: פלשת‎, Pleshet)

Then acts like he's not a lunatic.

Don't you think that guy is an idiot? Tell him Rigby...

Anyway, even Rigby knows Arabs can't pronounce 'P-alestine'.

Wrong, Pleshet is pronounced with a soft F, not hard P.
The word Palestine is not supposed to be pronounced with a hard P.
That is the anglicized version.
Any Israeli who pronounces it with a hard P is exposing his European origins.

Well, if only some high power could create a world were all Hebrew words, like 'P-alestine',
originated from Arabic, so that Arabs could pronounce them...
and erase all the verses from Torah where it says 'P-leshet'.

If only you could force everyone to pretend with you from now on,
that when it says 'Pontiac' on the car, the correct way is to pronounce it just like Arabs can't...


Yeah what a shame,
if only Arabs could pronounce a 'P',
you'd need so much less work and excuses for that lunacy.

That is just a stupid lie.
I already quoted where is said Hebrew also has no hard P, and it is pronounced as a soft F instead, in Hebrew.

Have you?

Oh dear...I think just can't stop lying just about anything.

d7591e47596ade8dd9018fe3e0b84b4b.jpg
 
You sir, have not a clue, you need a bit of education. Or you lie on purpose. Either way:
Not a chance. Jordan wants nothing whatsoever to do with Palestinians. How relieved was Jordan to dump them on Israel to deal with after the 67 war.
Not meaning to split hairs, but Jordan didn't actually relinquish (in their mind if nothing else) the West Bank until 1988.

I just wish that Israel could get the control of the Temple Mount out of the hands of the Waqf without creating imagined problems. Because any 'problems' that would portend would be 'imagined'.

The Temple Mount has no significance to Jews.
You're kidding, right? Then why have they been praying at that wall for all this time?
No one has any idea where either temple of Solomon ever was.
There was only one 'Temple of Solomon', the other was called 'Herod's Temple' as he contributed the most to it's building.
The Temple Mount most likely was a temple of Baal by the Canaanites, since it uses stone much larger than the Hebrew were known to use.
That's because the majority of the work done on the second temple was done using Roman methods.
It is not like the Hebrew had any significant presence by the time of the Romans, as even King Herod was just a Roman who converted so he could rule.
No significant presence??? They sure staged an awful lot of revolts against the Ptolemy's and then Roman's if they didn't really have any presence there. King Herod was a Jew. His grandfather Herod Antipas converted. Amtipas was made general over all of Idumea under Ptolemenic rule. Antipas' son became a puppet of the winners when he realized that the Romans and not the Greeks were going to be the real power so aligning himself with them. Herod the Great inherited rule over Judea from his family line.

You're welcome.
 

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