Fist off, I'll address your perversion of state's rights. The Southern representation in Congress was already outnumbered and in large part, unrepresented compared to it's population and role in the economy.
Point me to a piece of legislation which proves this, would you?
As far as Southern "hostility", when the South seceeded from the Union, all lands within their boundaries, including previous federal forts, became Southern terriroty. It was the North's choice not to give up land---that no longer belonged to them...get it??
Yes, I understand the logic of it. It flows from the presupposition that the South had the RIGHT to leave the Republic. Good luck proving that that was the plan the Founding Fathers had in mind.
Good luck dealing with the fact that the Republic is often mentioned in the Federalist papers as something they were creating from the states "in perpituity"
Considering the United States Constitution (in 1861) did not delegate the power of secession to the federal government, nor prohibit it to the states, the power of secession rested with the states. As soon as the South exercised their right, obtained by the constitution, the lands within their borders belonged to them. The Union refused to leave Fort Sumter despite NUMEROUS requests and warnings. The land that Fort Sumter sat on did not belong to the North as soon as South Carolina seceeded.
You have to make the case that the consitution allowed secession. It does not. Feel free to quote anything in the Constitution you think that suggests it, though.
This war was fought over states rights. Slavery was an underlying issue...pure and simple. For those of you who complain about revisionist history, take a trip down the history brick road and remember who won the Civil War--hence, who wrote the history.
An assertion without any real argument.
Unless you're (sotto voce) asserting a theory that the Republic rewrote the Federalist papers, antibellum
That's sheer poppycock, of course.