The Derp
Gold Member
- Apr 12, 2017
- 9,620
- 661
- 205
- Banned
- #521
You think an overnight loan from the Discount Window increases a bank's capital?
No, it's just what they did in order to avoid the public humiliation of having to get a bailout.
So besides failing math and Econ 101, you also failed Accounting 101.
Toddster, at this point with all your goalpost-shifting, it really falls on deaf ears when you claim to have knowledge on this subject when you don't. Why did those banks and businesses go to the Fed's Discount Window? Do you even know?
$1 billion in capital supports how much in loans at an 8% capital requirement?
How much in loans at a 10% capital requirement? Use a calculator.
Post your answer.
LOL! So again, you're just using made-up standards now in order to lend your shitty argument credibility. The fact is that bank revenue has surpassed that of pre-Bush collapse. So this isn't about a capital requirement to loan, this is about a capital requirement to buy securities, which is why the capital requirement was replaced with self-regulation in 2004 in the first place.
And just another FYI, capital requirements are now much higher than pre-2004.
Prove it. And capital requirements aren't the only thing in play here. Banks have increased their revenues, which means the capital requirement going up is on revenue, which also went up. So the pool from which the capital requirement comes is bigger, which means more gross capital is there. Banks aren't lending because lending isn't as profitable for them as gambling in the secondary markets. That's why they removed the net capital rule in the first place. Not to lend more, but to buy more.
You said it was eliminated. Your NYT link said, " It was unanimous. The decision, changing what was known as the net capital rule, was completed and published in The Federal Register a few months later"
Yes, the rule was changed and that change was the rule's elimination and replacement with self-regulation, where the net capital rule is arbitrarily decided by each bank, on its own, and doesn't even have to apply to any standard. That's the elimination of the rule, whether you want to accept it or not. So once again, you are trying to make this an argument over semantics and not results. The result of the self-regulation was the elimination of the net capital rule, relying on banks themselves to set their own rules according to their own standards. Which is the same thing as not having a net capital rule at all.
That's how Laissez-faire Conservatism works.
The NYT says the change was published. You should find it and post it.
Who knows, maybe it will actually back up your claim? LOL!
Yes, the NYT also says the change was that the banks ended up self-regulating, effectively eliminating the rule.