Ghost of a Rider
Gold Member
If all men are equal, as it states in the Constitution, why were slaves considered three fifths of a person?not a lieReparations? How can blacks pay back all the lives of whites that died to free them? This is over 150 years ago. Reparations for ex slaves 150 years hence? Well, on the other hand, how much do former slaves owe the union for freeing them? I am not an economist. But Frank Regan would say, we are even Steven.
Until this lie is overturned, we are not even Steven.We hold these truths to be self-evident, that all men are created equal, that they are endowed by their Creator with certain unalienable Rights...
Until such time as ALL are equal, we are not even Steven.
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Three-Fifths Compromise - Wikipedia
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The article states:
"However, since slaves could not vote, leaders in slave states would thus have the benefit of increased representation in the House and the Electoral College."
Slavery was abolished in 1865, fully twelve years before the Compromise was reached. There were no slave states at that time.
Oops, I was thinking 1887 rather than 1787 stated in the article. My mistake.
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